Is that mapping the homomorphism?

  • Thread starter Thread starter NasuSama
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Mapping
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves group theory, specifically examining the properties of automorphisms within a group G and the mapping of elements to the automorphism group Aut(G). The original poster attempts to verify whether a certain mapping is a homomorphism or an antihomomorphism.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the evaluation of the mapping \Phi and its properties, particularly focusing on the composition of automorphisms and the implications of the order of operations. Questions arise regarding the clarity of notation and the handling of variables in the calculations.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide feedback on the original poster's calculations, suggesting clarifications and pointing out potential issues with notation. There is acknowledgment of the conclusion that \Phi(gh) = \Phi(h) \circ \Phi(g), but the nature of the mapping (homomorphism vs. antihomomorphism) remains under discussion without explicit consensus.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of potential confusion regarding the direction of multiplication in the automorphism group and the need to clarify the notation used in the original poster's calculations. The original poster indicates they do not require help with part (a), suggesting some constraints on the discussion's focus.

NasuSama
Messages
323
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement



Let G be a group and let Aut(G) be the group of automorphisms of G.

(a) For any g \in G, define \phi_{g}(x) = g^{-1}xg. Check that \phi_{g}(x) is an automorphism.

(b) Consider the map:

\Phi:G \rightarrow Aut(G)
g \mapsto \phi_{g}

Check that \Phi is a homomorphism.

2. The attempt at a solution

Evaluate \Phi at gh with arbitrary x, so:

\Phi(gh) = \phi_{gh}(x) = (gh)^{-1}x(gh) = h^{-1}g^{-1}xgh = \phi_{h}(\phi_{g}(x))
= \phi_{h} \circ \phi_{g} (x) = \Phi(h) \circ \Phi(g)

But the operation is reversed for this situation. So this is considered to be an antihomomorphism.

Any comments?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
In question (a), you probably meant "check that ##\phi_g## is an automorphism". Do you need help with (a)? You have only shown your work for (b).

At the far left, you need to write ##\Phi(gh)(x)=\phi_{gh}(x)=##. The x appears out of nowhere in your calculation, and then it magically disappears at the end. So you need to do something similar at the end.

I agree that we end up with ##\Phi(gh)=\Phi(h)\circ\Phi(g)##.
 
The multiplication on the Automorphism group is sometimes written backwards to accommodate this (for example on the wikipedia page about this homomorphism) - where
\left(\phi_{g} \phi_{h}\right)(x) = \phi_h \left( \phi_g(x) \right)
so you should check to make sure that multiplication is composition read from right to left

If this isn't what it's supposed to be then probably there's a type and the homomorphism is supposed to be
g \mapsto \phi_{g^{-1}}
 
Fredrik said:
In question (a), you probably meant "check that ##\phi_g## is an automorphism". Do you need help with (a)? You have only shown your work for (b).

At the far left, you need to write ##\Phi(gh)(x)=\phi_{gh}(x)=##. The x appears out of nowhere in your calculation, and then it magically disappears at the end. So you need to do something similar at the end.

I agree that we end up with ##\Phi(gh)=\Phi(h)\circ\Phi(g)##.

Nope, don't need help with part (a). Sorry to indicate that beforehand.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
962
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K