Show that the Hamiltonian operator is Hermitian

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of the Hamiltonian operator in quantum mechanics, specifically its Hermitian nature. Participants explore the mathematical framework and assumptions underlying the integration of wavefunctions and the implications of Hilbert space properties.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants examine the conditions under which certain terms vanish in the context of the Hamiltonian operator. Questions arise regarding the implications of wavefunctions being in Hilbert space and the nature of pathological functions. There is also discussion about the need for stronger conditions for physical wavefunctions and the implications of restricting the domain of operators.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the properties of wavefunctions and the mathematical requirements for the Hamiltonian to be Hermitian. Some participants suggest that the conditions for physical wavefunctions are well understood, while others raise concerns about the completeness of the definitions and the implications of pathological cases.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing exploration of the definitions and properties of functions in Hilbert space, particularly regarding their behavior at infinity. The discussion highlights the distinction between mathematical rigor and physical applicability, noting that certain pathological functions, while mathematically valid, do not arise in physical contexts.

JD_PM
Messages
1,125
Reaction score
156
Homework Statement
Show that the Hamiltonian operator $$\hat H = -\frac{\hbar}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} + V(x)$$ is hermitian
Relevant Equations
##<f|\hat H g> = <\hat H f|g>##
$$<f|\hat H g> = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f^*\Big(-\frac{\hbar}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} + V(x) \Big) g dx$$

Integrating (twice) by parts and assuming the potential term is real (AKA ##V(x) = V^*(x)##) we get

$$<f|\hat H g> = -\frac{\hbar}{2m} \Big( f^* \frac{dg}{dx}|_{-\infty}^{\infty} - \frac{df^*}{dx}|_{-\infty}^{\infty} g + \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{d^2 f}{dx^2}g dx \Big) + \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} V^*(x) f^* g dx $$

In order to get the desired I had to assume that

$$f^* \frac{dg}{dx}|_{-\infty}^{\infty} = 0$$

$$\frac{df^*}{dx}|_{-\infty}^{\infty} g = 0$$

Then we get

$$<f|\hat H g> = -\frac{\hbar}{2m} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{d^2 f}{dx^2}g dx + \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} V^*(x) f^* g dx = <\hat H f|g>$$

Checking the solution, they say that these terms indeed vanish 'because both f and g live on Hilbert space'.

But what property of Hilbert space makes this true?

Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I would better say that, if ##f## and ##g## are valid wavefunctions, then both belong to the complex space ##L_2(\mathbb{R})##, which is a Hilbert space if we consider the scalar product defined as
$$
\langle f | g \rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f^*(x)g(x)\ dx\ .
$$

By definition, the complex space ##L_2(\mathbb{R})## is the set of all functions ##f## such that
$$
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |f(x)|^2\ dx < +\infty\ ,
$$
and this can only be true if ##f## vanishes at ##+\infty## and ##-\infty##. This is why you get that those terms are null when they are evaluated at infinity.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: JD_PM
JD_PM said:
In order to get the desired I had to assume that

$$f^* \frac{dg}{dx}|_{-\infty}^{\infty} = 0$$

$$\frac{df^*}{dx}|_{-\infty}^{\infty} g = 0$$But what property of Hilbert space makes this true?

Thanks.

In general, those terms do not necessarily vanish for square integrable functions. You need a stronger condition here. The argument is that any physical wave-functions will obey these conditions and functions that do not are "pathological" and unphysical.

To quote Griffiths: any decent maths student can furnish you with a counterexample.

PS more fundamentally, the differential operator is not closed acting on ##L_2(\mathbb R)##. A counterexample is:
$$f(x) = \frac 1 x \sin(x^3)$$
Which is square integrable on ##[1, \infty)##, but its derivative is not.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: JD_PM
PeroK said:
In general, those terms do not necessarily vanish for square integrable functions. You need a stronger condition here. The argument is that any physical wave-functions will obey these conditions and functions that do not are "pathological" and unphysical.

To quote Griffiths: any decent maths student can furnish you with a counterexample.

Griffiths indeed states that 'there exist pathological functions that are square-integrable but do not go to zero at infinity'.

He suggests that if we are worried about that issue we simply 'restrict the domain of our operators to exclude them'. What does he mean, that we should not integrate over the whole infinity line?

He also states that such problematic functions do not arise in Physics; but why?
 
JD_PM said:
Griffiths indeed states that 'there exist pathological functions that are square-integrable but do not go to zero at infinity'.

He suggests that if we are worried about that issue we simply 'restrict the domain of our operators to exclude them'. What does he mean, that we should not integrate over the whole infinity line?

He also states that such problematic functions do not arise in Physics; but why?

They must all go to zero at infinity. That's true for all square integrable functions. (Although you can mess around with having a sequence of discontinuities.)

What these functions have in common generally is unboundedness of derivatives, especially as the x-coordinate tends to infinity. Remember that in many ways real things are finite and considering a function defined on ##(-\infty, \infty)## is something of an approximation. It can't really go on for ever physically. What you can't have physically is a function that behaves more and more extremely as you go further away from the centre of the action. That's what makes them unphysical. This is true for the example I gave.

The restriction is on the set of functions you consider. One simple idea is that they must go to zero faster than any power of ##x##. I.e. eventually they must go to zero exponentially. Otherwise, your physical system is not contained.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: JD_PM and vanhees71
I'd not consult Griffiths's QM textbook on such subtle issues. He is pretty sloppy in the foundations and mathematics. For a nice didactical introduction into these problems, which you can summarize to the conclusion that an operator that should represent an observable should not only be "Hermitian" but must even be "essentially self-adjoint", see

https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9907069
https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0103153
 
  • Informative
Likes   Reactions: JD_PM
Thank you all, I now have a better understanding :)

vanhees71 said:
I'd not consult Griffiths's QM textbook on such subtle issues. He is pretty sloppy in the foundations and mathematics. For a nice didactical introduction into these problems, which you can summarize to the conclusion that an operator that should represent an observable should not only be "Hermitian" but must even be "essentially self-adjoint", see

https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9907069
https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0103153

Thank you for sharing these links vanhees71 :)

I am actually reviewing Griffiths' chapter 3 (formalism in QM), which contains:

3.1 Introduction to Hilbert space.

3.2 Observables.

3.3 Eigenfunctions of a Hermitian operator.

3.4 Generalized statistical interpretation.

3.5 Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.

3.6 Dirac notation.

I will complement both PDFs with Griffiths.
 

Similar threads

Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K