Show that you can find d and b s.t pd-bq=1 , p and q are coprime- GCF

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the existence of integers \( b \) and \( d \) such that \( pd - bq = 1 \) for coprime integers \( p \) and \( q \). The context includes references to modular forms and Bézout's identity, with participants exploring methods to establish this relationship.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests using the division of \( p \) by \( q \) to approach the problem.
  • Another participant mentions Bézout's identity, stating that it allows expressing the greatest common divisor \( d \) of two integers \( p \) and \( q \) in the form \( d = pd + dq \), and implies that \( d = 1 \) can be achieved for coprime integers.
  • A later reply illustrates the application of the Euclidean algorithm to demonstrate the relationship, providing an example with specific integers.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the relevance of Bézout's identity and the Euclidean algorithm in establishing the relationship, but there is no consensus on the specific steps or methods to demonstrate it clearly.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the argument's clarity and completeness, indicating that further elaboration may be needed to fully understand the implications of coprimality in this context.

binbagsss
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Context probably irrelevant but modular forms- to show that all rational numbers can be mapped to ##\infty##) that is there exists a ## \gamma = ( a b c d) ##, sorry that's a 2x2 matrix, ## \in SL_2(Z) ## with ## det (\gamma) = ad-bc=1 ## s.t ## \gamma . t = at+b/ct+d = \infty ##, where take ## t= r ## , r a rational number. )

So I'm at the stage where I am just stuck on showing that ## p ## and ## q ## co prime implies that ## b ## and ## d ## can be found s.t ## pd-bq=1 ## , b and d integer.

I'm not sure how to do this? I think the argument should be obvious?
 
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Simpy divide ##p## by ##q##.
 
fresh_42 said:
Simpy divide ##p## by ##q##.

##(p/q) d - b =1 ## , now what?
 
It's called Bézout's identity which allows to write the greatest common divisor ##d## of two integers ##p,q## in the form ##d= pd + dq##.
The proof uses the Euclidean algorithm and the ordering of ##\mathbb{Z}##.
 
binbagsss said:
Context probably irrelevant but modular forms- to show that all rational numbers can be mapped to ##\infty##) that is there exists a ## \gamma = ( a b c d) ##, sorry that's a 2x2 matrix, ## \in SL_2(Z) ## with ## det (\gamma) = ad-bc=1 ## s.t ## \gamma . t = at+b/ct+d = \infty ##, where take ## t= r ## , r a rational number. )

So I'm at the stage where I am just stuck on showing that ## p ## and ## q ## co prime implies that ## b ## and ## d ## can be found s.t ## pd-bq=1 ## , b and d integer.

I'm not sure how to do this? I think the argument should be obvious?

Your question is immediately answered by Bezout's theorem:

##Gcf(a,b) = d \iff \exists m,n \in \mathbb{Z}: ma + nb = d##. Simply set ##d = 1##. To prove this, one can use the Euclidean algorithm backwards.

To illustrate with an example:

##Gcf(17,3) = 1##

##17 = 3*5 + 2##
##5 = 2*2 + 1 ##
This was the euclidean algorithm. Now substituting back (the idea to prove Bezout's theorem)
##1 = 5 -2*2 = 5 - 2(17 -3*5) = 5 -2*17 + 2* 3*5 = -2*17 + 7*5##
 

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