Showing that a limit does not exist

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Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Let ##f(x) = 0## if ##x## is rational and ##=1## of ##x## is irrational. Prove that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x)## does not exist for any ##a##.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I need help setting this one up. I was thinking that maybe I can argue by contradiction and suppose that there exists an ##a\in \mathbb{R}## such that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L## for some ##L##. I don't know what the contradiction would then be though.

EDIT: Can I assume that ##L## is either 1 or 0? If so I think I know how to proceed.
 
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Mr Davis 97 said:

Homework Statement


Let ##f(x) = 0## if ##x## is rational and ##=1## of ##x## is irrational. Prove that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x)## does not exist for any ##a##.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I need help setting this one up. I was thinking that maybe I can argue by contradiction and suppose that there exists an ##a\in \mathbb{R}## such that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L## for some ##L##. I don't know what the contradiction would then be though.

EDIT: Can I assume that ##L## is either 1 or 0? If so I think I know how to proceed.
Yes. ##|f(x)-L|\in \{\,|1-L|\, , \,|L|\,\}## which can only get arbitrary small, if ##L \in \{\,0\, , \,1\,\}## for otherwise there will be a constant gap.
 
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fresh_42 said:
Yes. ##|f(x)-L|\in \{\,|1-L|\, , \,|L|\,\}## which can only get arbitrary small, if ##L \in \{\,0\, , \,1\,\}## for otherwise there will be a constant gap.
So would an argument go like this?

Let ##a\in\mathbb{R}##.
The only two possible values for a limit of ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x)## are ##0,1##, since otherwise there will always be a constant gap and hence ##f## would not get arbitrarily small.

However, ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 1## for the following reason: Set ##\epsilon = 1/2## and let ##\delta > 0##. Then there exists a rational number ##x_0## in ##0<|x_0-a|<\delta## by the density of the rationals. However, ##|f(x_0)-1| = |0-1| = 1 \not < 1/2 ##, and so ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 1##.

Also, ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 0## for the following reason: Set ##\epsilon = 1/2## and let ##\delta > 0##. Then there exists a irrational number ##x_0## in ##0<|x_0-a|<\delta## by the density of the irrationals. However, ##|f(x_0)-0| = |1-0| = 1 \not < 1/2 ##, and so ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 0##.
 
Density is a good key. For any ##\delta > 0## you can always find a rational number ##r## and an irrational number ##j## such that ##|r-j| < \delta##. If the limit exists, then ##x \longmapsto f(x)## is continuous at ##a##. Now prove that it is not continuous by the ##\varepsilon-\delta## definition.
 
fresh_42 said:
Density is a good key. For any ##\delta > 0## you can always find a rational number ##r## and an irrational number ##j## such that ##|r-j| < \delta##. If the limit exists, then ##x \longmapsto f(x)## is continuous at ##a##. Now prove that it is not continuous by the ##\varepsilon-\delta## definition.
So does my proof work or not? If not then why not?
 
Your wording of what I had written is a bit strange. The principle is o.k., but I think you will have to start with the distinction of ##a## being rational or not, simply because in what you have written, you cannot rule out ##a=x_0## and with it ##f(x_0)=f(a)\,.## I still find you should work with the negation of the ##\varepsilon-\delta## definition for practicing.
 
Easier: use sequences of rationals/irrationals approaching irrationals/rationals together with the sequential characterisation of limits.
 
scottdave said:
I am not sure what it's called, but I think there is a theorem stating something like between any 2 rational numbers, there is an uncountable infinite amount of irrational numbers. The uncountable may be the key.

What I have always found mysterious is the fact that between any two rationals there is an irrational and between any two irrationals there is a rational. Nevertheless, there are a lot more irrationals than rationals!
 
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