Showing that a limit does not exist

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of a piecewise function defined as \( f(x) = 0 \) for rational \( x \) and \( f(x) = 1 \) for irrational \( x \). The original poster seeks to prove that the limit \( \lim_{x\to a} f(x) \) does not exist for any real number \( a \).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the idea of using contradiction to establish the non-existence of the limit, questioning whether the limit \( L \) can only be 0 or 1. They discuss the implications of the density of rational and irrational numbers in relation to the limit.

Discussion Status

Participants have provided various insights and approaches, including the use of the \( \epsilon-\delta \) definition of limits and continuity. Some suggest considering sequences of rational and irrational numbers approaching a point, while others emphasize the need to clarify the distinction of \( a \) being rational or irrational. There is no explicit consensus on a single approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the density of rational and irrational numbers, as well as the implications of continuity in the context of limits. There is an acknowledgment of the complexity involved in proving the non-existence of the limit.

Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Let ##f(x) = 0## if ##x## is rational and ##=1## of ##x## is irrational. Prove that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x)## does not exist for any ##a##.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I need help setting this one up. I was thinking that maybe I can argue by contradiction and suppose that there exists an ##a\in \mathbb{R}## such that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L## for some ##L##. I don't know what the contradiction would then be though.

EDIT: Can I assume that ##L## is either 1 or 0? If so I think I know how to proceed.
 
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Mr Davis 97 said:

Homework Statement


Let ##f(x) = 0## if ##x## is rational and ##=1## of ##x## is irrational. Prove that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x)## does not exist for any ##a##.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


I need help setting this one up. I was thinking that maybe I can argue by contradiction and suppose that there exists an ##a\in \mathbb{R}## such that ##\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L## for some ##L##. I don't know what the contradiction would then be though.

EDIT: Can I assume that ##L## is either 1 or 0? If so I think I know how to proceed.
Yes. ##|f(x)-L|\in \{\,|1-L|\, , \,|L|\,\}## which can only get arbitrary small, if ##L \in \{\,0\, , \,1\,\}## for otherwise there will be a constant gap.
 
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fresh_42 said:
Yes. ##|f(x)-L|\in \{\,|1-L|\, , \,|L|\,\}## which can only get arbitrary small, if ##L \in \{\,0\, , \,1\,\}## for otherwise there will be a constant gap.
So would an argument go like this?

Let ##a\in\mathbb{R}##.
The only two possible values for a limit of ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x)## are ##0,1##, since otherwise there will always be a constant gap and hence ##f## would not get arbitrarily small.

However, ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 1## for the following reason: Set ##\epsilon = 1/2## and let ##\delta > 0##. Then there exists a rational number ##x_0## in ##0<|x_0-a|<\delta## by the density of the rationals. However, ##|f(x_0)-1| = |0-1| = 1 \not < 1/2 ##, and so ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 1##.

Also, ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 0## for the following reason: Set ##\epsilon = 1/2## and let ##\delta > 0##. Then there exists a irrational number ##x_0## in ##0<|x_0-a|<\delta## by the density of the irrationals. However, ##|f(x_0)-0| = |1-0| = 1 \not < 1/2 ##, and so ##\lim_{x\to a}f(x) \not = 0##.
 
I am not sure what it's called, but I think there is a theorem stating something like between any 2 rational numbers, there is an uncountable infinite amount of irrational numbers. The uncountable may be the key.
 
Density is a good key. For any ##\delta > 0## you can always find a rational number ##r## and an irrational number ##j## such that ##|r-j| < \delta##. If the limit exists, then ##x \longmapsto f(x)## is continuous at ##a##. Now prove that it is not continuous by the ##\varepsilon-\delta## definition.
 
fresh_42 said:
Density is a good key. For any ##\delta > 0## you can always find a rational number ##r## and an irrational number ##j## such that ##|r-j| < \delta##. If the limit exists, then ##x \longmapsto f(x)## is continuous at ##a##. Now prove that it is not continuous by the ##\varepsilon-\delta## definition.
So does my proof work or not? If not then why not?
 
Your wording of what I had written is a bit strange. The principle is o.k., but I think you will have to start with the distinction of ##a## being rational or not, simply because in what you have written, you cannot rule out ##a=x_0## and with it ##f(x_0)=f(a)\,.## I still find you should work with the negation of the ##\varepsilon-\delta## definition for practicing.
 
Easier: use sequences of rationals/irrationals approaching irrationals/rationals together with the sequential characterisation of limits.
 
scottdave said:
I am not sure what it's called, but I think there is a theorem stating something like between any 2 rational numbers, there is an uncountable infinite amount of irrational numbers. The uncountable may be the key.

What I have always found mysterious is the fact that between any two rationals there is an irrational and between any two irrationals there is a rational. Nevertheless, there are a lot more irrationals than rationals!
 
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