Simple Finite Square Well Problem help *Ignore, made stupid mistake*

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The discussion revolves around solving the finite square well problem using a second-order differential equation. The user initially assumed a solution of the form e^(γx) and derived two real roots, γ = 0 and k^2, leading to a general solution involving exponentials. However, they realized a mistake in their approach, confusing the terms in the differential equation. The correct form should involve sine and cosine terms, which arise from using imaginary roots, but the user struggled with incorporating these due to their earlier error. The thread highlights the importance of careful attention to detail in mathematical problem-solving.
Irishdoug
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Homework Statement
Self studying Quantum Mechanics. I've a finite square well. Inside the well the V(x) = 0. Thus the problem becomes that of the free particle. I'm aware the solution to the SE is Asinkx + Bcoskx however I can't figure out how.
Relevant Equations
##\psi ##'' = ##-k^2 \psi ## were k = ##(2mE)^{0.5}## / ##\hbar##
I've tried to carry out the solution to this as a normal 2nd order Differential Equation
##\psi ##'' - ##-k^2 \psi ## = 0
Assume solution has form ##e^{\gamma x}##
sub this in form ##\psi## and get
##\gamma ^2## ##e^{\gamma x} ## + ##k^2 e^{\gamma x}## = 0
Solution is ##\gamma## = 0 or ##k^2##
Now have two real roots that are not equal thus have
c1##e^{\gamma_1 x}## + c2##e^{\gamma_2 x}##
I presume this is wrong, as I cannot figure out how to turn it into c1sinkx +c2coskx.
I'm aware of Eulers equation but I've no imaginary number and just using the real part means I've no sin term.
 
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Irishdoug said:
##\gamma ^2## ##e^{\gamma x} ## + ##k^2 e^{\gamma x}## = 0
Solution is ##\gamma## = 0 or ##k^2##
Check your solution to this equation.
 
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When I did it I used ##\psi##'' +##k^2 \psi##' instead of simply ##+k^2 \psi## hence my wrong answer. Only realized when I'd written all that out the mistake I'd made. Tis the problem with studying after a full days work!

Cheers for the reply though.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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