How Does Equation (1) Translate to Equation (2) in Simple Harmonic Motion?

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To derive x as a function of time for a simple harmonic oscillator, one starts with Newton's second law and Hooke's law, leading to a second-order differential equation. The solution to this equation typically results in an expression like x(t) = A*cos(ωt + φ). The discussion highlights the confusion in translating this to another form, x(t) = A*sin(ωt + φ), and questions the specific trigonometric laws needed for this transformation. Suggestions include working backwards from the desired equation to clarify the relationship. Understanding the connections between the cosine and sine forms is crucial for mastering simple harmonic motion equations.
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I'm supposed to derive x as a function of time for a simple
harmonic oscillator (ie, a spring). According to my textbook
this is done by using Newton's second law and hooke's law
as this: ma=-kx and one gets a differential equation in
the second order. I can follow the calculations until this
happens: (see attached picture)

(where omega is the frequency)

I do get the equation (1) when I solve the differential
equation myself but I don't understand how equation (1) translates
to (2)?
I assume this must be done by using some trigonometric law?
if so then which one and how??
Thanks
 

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Spring mass systems often use omega to represent sqrt(k/m). It isn't a trigonometric law, though if your textbook eventually (I can't see the picture so I don't know) represents the motion as x(t) = Acos(wt + ø) then you will need to use trig.
 
Mindscrape said:
Spring mass systems often use omega to represent sqrt(k/m). It isn't a trigonometric law, though if your textbook eventually (I can't see the picture so I don't know) represents the motion as x(t) = Acos(wt + ø) then you will need to use trig.

That's right.. but exactly which trig law do I use and how do I use it to go from equation (1) above in the attached picture to x(t) = Asin(wt + ø).

Or in other words HOW do I go FROM x(t)=x0cos(wt)+(v0/w)sin(wt) ---- (w being = sqrt(k/m) TO x(t) = Asin(wt + ø)
how? HOW? HOW?!??!? HOW?!?
 
That is for you to find out. :p

Try working backwards, it might be a little easier.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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