Simple Harmonic Oscillator Problem with Slight Variation

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The discussion centers on solving a simple harmonic oscillator problem with an infinite potential barrier at x=0. The user proposes a wave function and seeks guidance on calculating allowed energies. The recommended approach involves substituting the potential into the Schrödinger equation, solving the resulting differential equation, and applying boundary conditions. There is mention of using a Gaussian integration technique to find the wave functions, with a focus on the implications of the boundary condition at x=0. The conversation highlights the importance of normalization and proper manipulation of the differential equation to derive the solutions.
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Homework Statement



A particle is moving in a simple harmonic oscillator potential V(x)=1/2*K*x^2 for x\geq0, but with an infinite potential barrier at x=0 (the paddle ball potential). Calculate the allowed wave functions and corresponding energies.

Homework Equations



I am thinking that the wave function would be \Psi=Ae^(i*x*sqrt{2m(E-1/2*k*x^2)}/hbar)+Be^(-i*x*sqrt{(2mE-1/2*K*x^2)}/hbar)<br /> <br /> Is this the right wave function? How do I go about finding the energies? Thanks for any help you can afford!<br /> <br /> (Sorry for the incompetency with Latex)
 
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The systematic way to solve these problems is to plug the potentials into the schrodinger equation, solve the resulting differential equation for psi, impose boundary criteria, then normalize the wavefunction
 
yea then you get

d^2Psi/dx^2 + [2m(E-1/2Kx^2]/hbar^2*psi = 0

I do not know how to solve this differential equation.

I'm pretty sure there's a lengthy integration and manipulation of the differential equation to yield psi(s) = f(s)e^[s^2/2] and then some more manipulation to lead to values for this polynomial f(s).

NOTE: s=x*(Km)^(1/4)/hbar^(1/2)
lambda = [2*sqrt(m)*E]/(hbar*sqrt(K))

in the initial substitution into the schrodinger equation to yield:
d^psi/dx^2 + (lambda - s^2)*psi = 0

Anyone know of this integration technique (Gaussian)? Anyone know whether the technique still applies if x can only be greater than 0?
 
wow great site in general, thanks a lot
 

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