Simple pendulum with friction ODE

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The discussion focuses on finding the general solution for a simple pendulum with friction, represented by the differential equation y'' + ky' + (g/L)y = 0. The characteristic equation derived from this is r^2 + kr + (g/L) = 0, with solutions obtained using the quadratic formula. Depending on the discriminant (k^2 - 4g/L), the nature of the roots varies: two distinct real roots, a repeated root indicating resonance, or complex roots leading to oscillatory solutions involving sine and cosine functions. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the homogeneous nature of the equation and the implications of different root types on the solution form. Overall, the complexity of the equation often necessitates numerical methods for practical solutions.
S_Flaherty
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I'm trying to figure out how to find the general solution for a simple pendulum with friction.


y'' + ky' + (g/L)y = 0


I know how to find the solution for a simple pendulum without friction:
y'' = -(g/L)y ... which leads to ... y = Acos((g/L)x)

So far I have: y'' + ky' + (g/L)y = 0, substituting m = y' and w^2 = g/L,
m^2 + km + w^2 = 0 so m = [-k ± sqrt(k^2 - 4(1)(w^2))]/2 ... I'm stuck here because
I can't remember how to reduce this so I can find the homogeneous equation for y.
 
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I don't think there is an exact solution, that's why people tend to numerically solve its motion via computer.

You could try making the magnitude of the frictionless pendulum (A) changing over time but not the period and see if it works.
 
This is a linear ODE with constant coefficients. You solve it by first solving its characteristic equation, which in this case is ## \lambda^2 + k\lambda + g/L = 0 ##, giving ## \lambda = \frac {-k \pm \sqrt{k^2 - 4g/L} } {2} ##. If the roots are different, then the solutions are given by ##y = Ae^{\frac {-k + \sqrt{k^2 - 4g/L} } {2}t} + Be^{\frac {-k - \sqrt{k^2 - 4g/L} } {2}t} ##. Note that the roots are typically complex, so A and B are also complex. By choosing them properly, you can transform the equation to ## y = e^{-(k/2)t} (A'\cos (\sqrt{(k/2)^2 - g/L})t + B'\sin (\sqrt{(k/2)^2 - g/L})t)##, where the constants are real.
 
I confused as to what you mean by "homogeneous equation". In differential equations there are two uses of the word "homogeneous" one of which applies only to first order equations and so does not apply here. The other is that a linear differential of higher order is "homogeneous" if and only if every term involves y or a derivative of y- in other words there is no function of x only. What you have here is a homogeneous equation!

The 'characteristic equation' of this differential equation* is r^2+ kr+ (g/L)= 0. By the quadratic formula, that has solution r= (-k\pm\sqrt{k^2- 4g/L})/2.
We can write the general solution as Ce^{[(-k+\sqrt{k^2-4g/L})/2]x}+ De^{[-k-\sqrt{k^2-4g/L})/2]x}= e^{-kx}(Ce^{\sqrt{k^2- 4g/L}x}+ De^{-\sqrt{k^2- 4g/L}x})

What that "really" is depends on whether k^2- 4g/L is positive, negative or 0. If it is positive then we simply have two exponentials. If it is 0, we have "resonance"- only a single root to the characteristic equation and will have one of the solutions multiplied by x. If it is negative, that square root gives imaginary roots so we will have e^{-kx} times sine and cosine.



* We get that 'characteristic equation' by "assuming" a solution of the form y= e^{rx} so that y'= re^{rx} and y''= r^2e^{rx}. Then y''+ ky'+ (g/L)y= r^2e^{rx}+ rke^{rx}+ (g/L)e^{rx}= (r^2+ kr+ (g/L))e^{rx}= 0. Since e^{rx} is never 0, we must have r^2+ kr+ (g/L)= 0.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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