Sinc function as a sum of cosines

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the relationship between the sinc function and a sum of cosine functions, specifically exploring whether there is a formal proof that connects these two representations. The scope includes theoretical aspects of Fourier series and mathematical reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes that the plots of the sinc function and a finite sum of cosines appear similar and inquires about a formal proof of their relationship.
  • Another participant suggests that a proof can be achieved through Fourier series decomposition, indicating the need to find the corresponding integral for the inner product in the cosine basis.
  • A later post reiterates the initial observation about the similarity of the plots and requests a graphical demonstration of this relationship.
  • One participant expresses a desire for a complete formula that accounts for an infinite sum, indicating that the previously mentioned sum is merely an approximation.
  • Another participant introduces a product representation of the sinc function, noting that it does not directly provide a sum but can be expressed in terms of logarithms of cosine functions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying viewpoints on the relationship between the sinc function and cosine sums, with no consensus reached on a formal proof or the completeness of the representations discussed.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes references to approximations and infinite sums, with some participants indicating limitations in the current formulations and the need for further exploration of the topic.

david316
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Hello,

If you plot
y=sin(x)/x
and also plot
y = summation of 0.01*cos(n*x/100) over n = 0 to n =100
you essentially get the same graph. Is there any formal proof that relates the sinc function to a sum of cosines.

Thanks
 
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Thanks for the post! Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
 
Hey david316.

You can prove this by doing a Fourier series decomposition over an interval in which you project the function to the sine and cosine bases functions.

It's basically finding the integral that corresponds to the inner product in that basis. For more see this:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_series
 
david316 said:
Hello,

If you plot
y=sin(x)/x
and also plot
y = summation of 0.01*cos(n*x/100) over n = 0 to n =100
you essentially get the same graph. Is there any formal proof that relates the sinc function to a sum of cosines.

Thanks

do you have a graphical plot demonstrating this?
 
nvm, I have it.

Do you have a complete formula that considers a sum to infinity? yours is just an approximation
 
I know that ## sinc(x)=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}\cos{\left(\frac{x}{2^{i}}\right)}## but is not a sum, if you want a sum you can write:

##\log{sinc(x)}=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\log{\cos{\left(\frac{x}{2^{i}}\right)}}## ...
 

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