Apteronotus
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Hi
I'm getting confused solving the Laplace eqn in Cartesian coordinates.
The equation can be solved by solving each of
<br /> \frac{X''(x)}{X(x)}=-k_x^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Y''(y)}{Y(y)}=-k_y^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Z''(z)}{Z(z)}=k_z^2<br />
and then substituting into the equation
<br /> \Phi(\vec{x})=X(x)Y(y)Z(z)<br />
The solution to the (general) ODE's is
<br /> X(x)=A_1e^{ik_xx}+A_2e^{-ik_xx}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Y(y)=B_1e^{ik_yy}+B_2e^{-ik_yy}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Z(z)=C_1e^{k_zz}+C_2e^{k_zz}<br />
But the solution when solving for the electric potential is given by
<br /> \Phi_{k_x,k_y,\pm}(\vec{x})=exp\left(ik_xx+ik_yy \pm\sqrt{k_x^2+k_y^2}\right)<br />
Where am I going wrong?
Why have they let the coefficients A_{1,2}, B_{1,2}, C_{1,2}=1?
Thanks
I'm getting confused solving the Laplace eqn in Cartesian coordinates.
The equation can be solved by solving each of
<br /> \frac{X''(x)}{X(x)}=-k_x^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Y''(y)}{Y(y)}=-k_y^2, \qquad\qquad<br /> \frac{Z''(z)}{Z(z)}=k_z^2<br />
and then substituting into the equation
<br /> \Phi(\vec{x})=X(x)Y(y)Z(z)<br />
The solution to the (general) ODE's is
<br /> X(x)=A_1e^{ik_xx}+A_2e^{-ik_xx}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Y(y)=B_1e^{ik_yy}+B_2e^{-ik_yy}, \qquad\qquad<br /> Z(z)=C_1e^{k_zz}+C_2e^{k_zz}<br />
But the solution when solving for the electric potential is given by
<br /> \Phi_{k_x,k_y,\pm}(\vec{x})=exp\left(ik_xx+ik_yy \pm\sqrt{k_x^2+k_y^2}\right)<br />
Where am I going wrong?
Why have they let the coefficients A_{1,2}, B_{1,2}, C_{1,2}=1?
Thanks
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