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I read somewhere that solutions to Laplace's Equation must agree at a shared boundary.

So for example if [tex]\Phi_{1}[/tex] and [tex]\Phi_{2}[/tex] are two solutions to the Laplace equation in two different regions which share a boundary, then on the boundary [tex]\Phi_{1}[/tex] = [tex]\Phi_{2}[/tex]

Is this true?

Can you help me see why?

Thanks in advance,

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# Homework Help: Solution to Laplace Equation across Boundaries

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