Solution to Laplace's Equation: f = r^-n-1 * cos(n+1)θ

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SUMMARY

The function f = r^(-n-1) * cos((n+1)θ) satisfies Laplace's equation, represented by the partial differential equation (P.D.E) r^2 ∂²f/∂r² + r ∂f/∂r + ∂²f/∂θ² = 0. The derivatives ∂f/∂r and ∂f/∂θ have been correctly identified as ∂f/∂r = -(n+1)cos((n+1)θ)r^(-(n+2)) and ∂f/∂θ = -(n+1)sin((n+1)θ)r^(-(n+1)). The discussion clarifies the relationship between the variables 'r' and 'θ' in the context of this equation.

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Homework Statement


f = r^-n-1 * cos(n+1) θ satisfies laplace's equation.
r^2 [itex]\partial^2 f / \partial r^2[/itex] + r[itex]\partial f / \partial r[/itex] + [itex]\partial^2 f / \partial θ^2[/itex] = 0

Homework Equations


P.D.E

The Attempt at a Solution


[itex]\partial f / \partial r[/itex] = nr^n-1 * sin (nθ)
[itex]\partial f/ \partial θ[/itex] = ncos(nθ)*r^n
Are these derivatives right ?
 
Last edited:
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What happened to partial differential equation?
 
HACR said:
What happened to partial differential equation?

Sorry , I have fixed my latex commands.Refresh the webpage.
 
The function is :


f = [itex]r^{-n-1}[/itex] * cos (n+1)[itex]θ[/itex]

Now I have been trying to figure out what bits are exactly related to variable 'r' and 'theta'...
[itex]\frac {\partial f}{\partial θ}[/itex] = {sin (n+1)θ + cos (n+1) } * r^-n-1 or
sin (n+1) * r^-n-1.
Can someone clarify this for me . Thanks!
 
If [itex]f = cos[(n+1)\theta] r^{-(n+1)}[/itex]

then [tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial r} = -(n+1)cos[(n+1)\theta] r^{-(n+2)}[/tex]
and [tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta} = -(n+1)sin[(n+1)\theta] r^{-(n+1)}[/tex]
 
Last edited:
Bread18 said:
If [itex]f = cos[(n+1)\theta] r^{-(n+1)}[/itex]

then [tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial r} = -(n+1)cos[(n+1)\theta] r^{-(n+2)}[/tex]
and [tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta} = -(n+1)sin[(n+1)\theta] r^{-(n+1)}[/tex]

Thanks for the help. This makes sense.. I was being sloppy, I didn't realize the fact that differentiating sin nθ is no different than sin (n+1)θ ah...
 
Ha yeah, no problem.
 

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