Solve Definite Integrals: 1/(1+cosx)dx from 0 to pi/2

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SUMMARY

The integral of 1/(1+cos(x)) from 0 to π/2 presents challenges due to its divergence at the upper limit. The discussion highlights the use of the identity cos²(x/2) = (1 + cos(x))/2 to simplify the integral. Participants suggest manipulating the integral by multiplying by (1 - cos(x)) and using trigonometric identities, ultimately leading to the conclusion that the integral diverges as it approaches π/2. The final answer is confirmed to be 1, but the method requires careful handling of limits.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of definite integrals and limits
  • Familiarity with trigonometric identities, specifically cos²(x/2)
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, including improper integrals
  • Basic calculus concepts, particularly related to divergence
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  • Study the properties of improper integrals and their convergence
  • Learn about trigonometric identities and their applications in integration
  • Explore techniques for evaluating limits involving trigonometric functions
  • Investigate the use of reduction formulas in integration
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Students in calculus courses, particularly those studying integration techniques, and anyone interested in solving trigonometric integrals and understanding their behavior at limits.

Leaping antalope
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can anyone help me with this problem...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
 
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Hint use the relation:
\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}
 
from my perspective, that problem would be very hard to solve without changing it somehow. try multiplying the top and bottom by (1-cos x) and see what happens. remember that sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1.

that is the method i used, but it did require me to use the reduction formula on one of the integrals. hopefully that helps, thought it may not be the inteded method.
 
so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...
 
Leaping antalope said:
so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...

i forgot that the derivative of cot is -csc^2. you don't need the reduction formula after all! i worked this out and i got

1/sin x - cot x
or
1/sin x - cos x/sin x

the problem is when it approaches zero, not pi/2. to me it looks like this is divergent, thus there is no definant area (as it approaches zero from the right, 1/sin x approaches infinity).

maybe i did something wrong, but the math looks correct. as a forewarning I'm just finishing the last chapter in calc 2 in college, so I'm not a math guru.

edit: i don't remember if limit laws dictate that you could say infinity minus infinity equals a total of zero. that could be it's been almost a year since i took calc 1. if so, you'd have (1-0)-(infinity - infinity = 0) = 1 unit^2.

i don't know when i get problems wrong on tests its usually due to magic algebra, that could be a case of it right there. i'd look it up but i need to finish writing up my lab for this evening.
 
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The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...
 
Leaping antalope said:
The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...

well, sin of 0 is 0, so either way you're dividing both by zero. the only thing i can figure out is that you do it as an improper integral and the infinities cancel each other.
 
arildno said:
Hint use the relation:
\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}

I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx

and you know that dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})
and
\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)

regards
marlon
 
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marlon said:
I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx

and you know that dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})
and
\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)

regards
marlon

that is clever, i didn't remember that identity. but you aren't finished. remember that the integral is from 0 to pi/2. under that integral the function is divergent, thus the area doesn't exist. right? (lim t---> pi/2 [tan x] from 0 to t) sin x /cos x -- as x approaches pi/2, thus cos x = 0, bad things happen.

also divergent by relation to 1/cos x isn't it?

if anyone has a certain answer, please elucidate! (no mathmatica at home :( )
 
  • #10
marlon said:
I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx

and you know that dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})
and
\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)

regards
marlon

edit: nevermind, i thought you were saying the answer was tan x. disregard this and above message!
 
Last edited:

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