Leaping antalope
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can anyone help me with this problem...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
The integral of 1/(1+cos(x)) from 0 to π/2 presents challenges due to its divergence at the upper limit. The discussion highlights the use of the identity cos²(x/2) = (1 + cos(x))/2 to simplify the integral. Participants suggest manipulating the integral by multiplying by (1 - cos(x)) and using trigonometric identities, ultimately leading to the conclusion that the integral diverges as it approaches π/2. The final answer is confirmed to be 1, but the method requires careful handling of limits.
PREREQUISITESStudents in calculus courses, particularly those studying integration techniques, and anyone interested in solving trigonometric integrals and understanding their behavior at limits.
Leaping antalope said:so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...
Leaping antalope said:The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...
arildno said:Hint use the relation:
\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}
marlon said:I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.
\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx
and you know that dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})
and
\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)
regards
marlon
marlon said:I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.
\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx
and you know that dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})
and
\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)
regards
marlon