Solving Complex Analysis Problem: Calculating Index of a Curve

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a complex analysis problem focused on calculating the index of a curve. Participants are exploring the implications of analyticity and the properties of integrals involving holomorphic functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss whether to use direct substitution or properties of analytic functions to approach the problem. There is a focus on the integral involving the derivative of a function and its implications for the winding number. Questions arise about the necessity of incorporating additional information related to the curve and its composition.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications. Some have suggested that a substitution simplifies the integral, leading to a potential proof of the index. However, there remains uncertainty about the relevance of all given information and the correctness of certain expressions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that some information in the problem may be extraneous, and there is ongoing exploration of how to properly apply the argument principle. There are also references to specific calculations related to the parameterization of the curve.

Raziel2701
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Homework Statement


This is complex analysis by the way. Here's the problem statement:http://i.imgur.com/wegWj.png"

I'm doing part b, but some information from part a is carried over.


The Attempt at a Solution


My problem is that I don't know if I'm being asked to show it via direct substitution or if I should make use of the fact that the function is analytic on the disk. Or maybe if the integrand is supposed to simplify to the typical expression for the index (or winding number):

[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\gamma}\frac{dz}{z-z_0}[/tex]

If it is the case that I have to take advantage of the function being holomorphic, then wouldn't the integral be equal to zero though? Since f'(z) and f(z) are holomorphic(or analytic) in the disk?

Any thoughts?
 
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In the integral

[tex]\int_\gamma{\frac{f^\prime(z)}{f(z)}dz}[/tex]

What do you get when you substitute u=f(z)?
 


I would get [tex]\int_\gamma \frac{1}{u}du[/tex] which would be 2pi i so all I have left is just one. So it helps, but I've yet to prove that it's the index. I'd expect a constant to be left.

I don't know if I have to incorporate the information relating to gamma and the composition f of gamma of t.
 


Not quite, if you make the substitution, you would end up with [tex]\int_{f\circ \gamma}{\frac{1}{u}du}[/tex] (you'll have to adjust the path to). So we have that

[tex]\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\gamma}{\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)}dz}=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{f\circ \gamma}{\frac{1}{z}dz}[/tex]

But the right is the winding number of [tex]f\circ \gamma[/tex] around 0, which is what you had to show...
 


Holy mackerel! So most of the information that was given in the problem was a distraction? Let me get this straight, we showed by substitution that the integrand is actually 1/u du, which allowed us to, well, show that the given expression is indeed the index number.

Did I get that right?

Lastly, for calculating the delta(t), I get [tex]e^{5it}[/tex] and [tex]e^{-3it}[/tex]. Are these correct?

Thanks.
 


Yes... But the result you've proven is very important tho (even if its proof isn't very hard). It even has a name: the argument principle.

The delta(t) seems to be correct...
 

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