bham10246
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I've been working on this problem and I need just a small hint.
Let A and B be solvable subgroups of a group G and suppose that A\triangleleft G. Prove that AB is solvable.
My idea:
So we have a chain of normal subgroups of A so that their quotient is abelian. We also have a chain of normal subgroups of B so that their quotient is abelian. Since A is normal in G, should I multiply the normal subgroups A_i in A by B to obtain B=1*B=A_0 B \triangleleft A_1 B \triangleleft ... \triangleleft A_k B = AB, but how do we know that (A_{i+1}B)/(A_i B) is abelian?
If I understand this one thing, then I think I can finish the rest of the proof. Thank you!
This is a right approach, right?
Let A and B be solvable subgroups of a group G and suppose that A\triangleleft G. Prove that AB is solvable.
My idea:
So we have a chain of normal subgroups of A so that their quotient is abelian. We also have a chain of normal subgroups of B so that their quotient is abelian. Since A is normal in G, should I multiply the normal subgroups A_i in A by B to obtain B=1*B=A_0 B \triangleleft A_1 B \triangleleft ... \triangleleft A_k B = AB, but how do we know that (A_{i+1}B)/(A_i B) is abelian?
If I understand this one thing, then I think I can finish the rest of the proof. Thank you!
This is a right approach, right?