- #1

benjamin111

- 6

- 0

## Homework Statement

My textbook states that the inverse of a bijection is also a bijection and is unique. I understand how to show that the inverse would be a bijection and intuitively I understand that it would be unique, but I'm not sure how to show that part.

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

My idea is to somehow say that if the inverse function is bijective and maps S -> T such that f-1(f(x))=x, then any other function that produces the same result must be the same function, but I can't quite figure out how to make this statement mathematically...

Thanks.