Solving Lagrangian Mechanics: Rod and Bean System Explained

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in Lagrangian mechanics involving a rod and a bean system. The scenario describes a rod sliding along a vertical pole while the other end slides along a horizontal pole, with a bean sliding along the rod. Participants are exploring how to formulate the Lagrangian for this system based on kinetic and potential energy considerations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the kinetic and potential energy expressions for the rod but expresses uncertainty about incorporating the bean's motion. Some participants suggest vectorially adding the velocities of the bean and the rod, while others highlight the complexity of the bean's motion due to the accelerating frame of reference.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the complexities of the velocities involved. There is acknowledgment of the challenges in determining the bean's velocity relative to a fixed frame of reference, and some guidance has been offered regarding the relationships between the different velocities in the system.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the implications of the rod's motion and the constraints on the bean's movement, which is influenced by both the rod's rotation and its own motion along the rod. The problem context includes considerations of relative motion and the need to express velocities in a coherent manner for the Lagrangian formulation.

Kate R
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
I'm stuck on a problem with lagrangian mechanics.

Here's the problem;

One end of a rod slides along a vertical pole while the other end
slides a long a horizontal pole. At the same time a bean slides a long
the rod. Find the lagrangian for the system.

And this is what I worked out so far;

The kinteic energy for the rod would be;

T = 1/2* M Vcm^2 + 1/2* Icm(theta dot)^2

Where M is the mass of the rod
Vcm is the velocity for the center of mass
Icm is the moment of intertia for center of mass; Icm = M/12*(L/2)^2
L is the length of the rod
theta is the angle between the vertical pole and the rod

The potential energy for the rod would be;

V = MgL*cos(theta)

So far I think it's ok because the velocity of the rod is relative to a fixed intertial frame, but I don't know what to do with the bean.

The beans velocity would be the veclocity of the rod plus the beans velocity relative to the rod, right?

I would be very greatful if someone could give me a little help with
this.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes, jusst add the two velocites vectorially.
 
And that is easier said than done (at least to me).The bean is in an accelerating frame of reference that is rotating around it's own axis AND in a circle (with the redius L/2).
So is it not really three velocities? The beans velocity, the velocity of the rod around it's own axis and the velocity of the rod in the circle

And how do I find the beans velocity relative to the fixed frame of reference?
 
Kate R said:
And that is easier said than done (at least to me).The bean is in an accelerating frame of reference that is rotating around it's own axis AND in a circle (with the redius L/2).
So is it not really three velocities? The beans velocity, the velocity of the rod around it's own axis and the velocity of the rod in the circle

And how do I find the beans velocity relative to the fixed frame of reference?

Picture it this way. At any instant of time, let B denote the point on the rod right under the bean, A denote the rod.

(i) v_B = v_A + v_(B/A), where v_B is vel of the point on the rod under the bean, v_A is the vel of the bean, and v_(B/A) is due to the rotation of the rod.
(ii) Now, the relative velocity of the bead wrt to the rigid point on the rod under it is always going to be in a direction along the rod. So, the absolute velocity of the particle is going to be v_B + v_(P/B), where v_B as before, is the vel of the point on the rod under the bean, and v_(P/B) is the vel of the particle with respect to the point (which is constrained to move along the rod.

You need to use this absolute velocity in the Lagrangian of the system.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
5K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
4K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
4K
  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
5K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K