Solving Pinball Machine Spring Force Problem

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The discussion focuses on calculating the launching speed of a ball in a pinball machine using the spring's force constant and the incline of the surface. The initial parameters include a spring constant of 1.2 N/cm, a ball mass of 0.1 kg, and a compression of 5 cm. The participant initially miscalculated the spring constant conversion, leading to incorrect results in their energy equations. After realizing the error, they corrected the spring constant to 120 N/m, which significantly impacts the calculations. The thread highlights the importance of accurate unit conversions in physics problems.
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Homework Statement


The ball launcher in a pinball machine has a spring that has a force constant of 1.2 N/cm. The surface on which the ball moves is inclined at 10° with respect to the horizontal. If the spring is initially compressed 5 cm, find the launching speed of a .1 kg ball when the plunger is released. Friction and the mass of the plunger are negligible.

Homework Equations


Ue (Elastic potential) = (1/2)kx^2
K (Kinetic) = (1/2)mv^2
Ug (Gravitational potential) = mgh

The Attempt at a Solution



k = 1.2 N/ cm = .012 N / m
x = 5 cm = .05 m
m = .1 kg
g = 9.8 m/s

Ue = K + Ug

.5kx^2 = .5mv^2 + mgh

.5(.012)(.05^2) = .5(.1)v^2 + .1(9.8)(.05sin(10°))

0.000015 = .05v^2 + .00851

At this point, my v^2 will equal a negative number, which makes no sense at all. I'm stuck >.<

The problem is that the left side of the equation gets exponentially smaller while the right hand side... doesn't.

Edit: Foolish calculator mistake. I hate how I find this out right after I posted it (I checked my work for 1/2 hr before posting).

1.2 N / cm = 120 N / m, not .012. I hit * instead of / on my calc.
 
Last edited:
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check your conversion from n/cm to n/m
 
I think it's just your conversion for the k value; you have to multiply
1.2N/cm*100cm/1m = 120N/m

my bad... didnt see that someone already replied.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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