Solving Quantum Mechanical Potential Barrier Problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving a quantum mechanical problem involving an alpha-particle trapped within a uranium core, with a potential defined by V0 for R1 <= r <= R2 and 0 elsewhere. The participant has calculated the transmission coefficient T and is tasked with demonstrating that for k*dR >> 1, T approximates K(E)*exp(-2k*dR). Key variables include k = sqrt(2m(V0-E)/hbar) and dR = R2-R1. The conversation also touches on tunneling in infinite potential wells, concluding that the probability for tunneling is zero.

PREREQUISITES
  • Quantum Mechanics fundamentals
  • Understanding of potential barriers and tunneling
  • Familiarity with transmission coefficients
  • Knowledge of mathematical functions such as sine and hyperbolic sine
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the transmission coefficient in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the implications of potential barriers in quantum tunneling
  • Explore the concept of infinite potential wells and their properties
  • Investigate the mathematical properties of sine and hyperbolic sine functions in quantum contexts
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in quantum mechanics, particularly those studying potential barriers and tunneling phenomena, will benefit from this discussion.

Pilean
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Hi!
I'm struggeling with a quantum mechanical problem.

Homework Statement



An alpha-particle is "trapped" inside a uraniumcore, and the potential is simplified to
0 for R2 < r
V0 for R1<= r <= R2
0 for 0<= r < R1

I have calculated the transmission coefficient T = 1/(1+V02/(4E(V0-E))*sin2(sqrt(2m(V0-E)/hbar*(R1-R2)

I am now supposed to show that for k*dR >> 1, we have
T ~ K(E)*exp(-2k*dR)
Where dR = R2-R1
and k = sqrt(2m(V0-E)/hbar
And tell what K(E) is...

I have tried to use that sinx = (exp(ix)-exp(-ix))/2i, but it won't turn into the right expression..

A small additional question: For a infinite potential, is there any possibility for tunneling into this area? After what I understand from the infinite square well the probability for the particle to be in such a potential is zero?

Hope for some guidence on where to start :)
 
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tell me is V0 > E if so then it should be sinh not sin
 
You are totally correct! Thanks!
 

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