Solving Simple Harmonic Motion: Find Angular Freq & Amp.

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The discussion focuses on deriving the angular frequency and amplitude of a particle in simple harmonic motion based on its velocities and displacements. The provided formulas for angular frequency and amplitude are derived from the relationship between velocity and displacement. Participants express confusion about whether to treat the problem as a combination of two separate solutions or to find a more straightforward approach. It is suggested that only two arbitrary constants are needed in the general solution, which can be represented using either cosine or sine functions. The conversation emphasizes the importance of clarity in applying the principles of simple harmonic motion.
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Question: A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion has a velocity v1 when the displacement is x1 and a velocity v2 when the displacement is x2. Find the angular frequency and the amplitutde of the motion in terms of the given quantities. The answers given in the back of the book are: angular frequency = [(v2^2 - v1^2)/(x1^2 - x2^2)]^(1/2) and amplitude = [(x1^2*v2^2 - x2^2*v1^2)/(v2^2 - v1^2)]^(1/2).

I've tried approaching this several ways, but can't seem to get my answers to agree. Should I treat the solution as a sum of two separate solutions with two different amplittudes since this is a linear differential equation, such that x(t) = x1(t) + x2(t) = A*cos(w*t + phi) + B*cos(w*t + phi) and similarly with v(t) = v1(t) + v2(t) = -w*A*sin(w*t + phi) - w*B*sin(w*t + phi). Or is there an easier way? I'm not sure what is appropriate to generalize and what is not. For example, I've taken the phase angle phi to be zero which I believe is acceptable. Any other suggestions? Thanks.
 
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You only need two arbitrary constants in your general solution. You can use either

A \cos(\omega t + \phi)
or
A \cos \omega t + B \sin \omega t.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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