Solving the Limit of sin(\pi*n/4)*\Gamma(x) Problem

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The limit of sin(πn/4) * Γ(x) as n approaches 0 is evaluated, revealing that it simplifies to sin(0) * Γ(x), which equals 0. However, a correction is noted that the limit should involve Γ(n) instead of Γ(x). The gamma function's property, Γ(x+1) = xΓ(x), is utilized to derive the limit. Applying L'Hôpital's rule shows that the limit approaches π/4. This result is significant for summing previously unsolved alternating series.
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I've recently been confronted with the limit as n goes to 0 of sin(\pi*n/4)*\Gamma(x) , and have no idea on how to confront the problem, as I have little familiarity with the gamma function. Is there any relatively easy ways to prove this, or at least ways that use methods not difficult to learn? I would very much like to see a proof, as wolfram alpha gives a answer of \pi/4, and the answer is important relating to some very interesting alternating series.
edit 2: Wow, I haven't solved this problem, but if wolfram alpha is right, soon I'll be summing alternating series never summed before :) Well, ones I've never seen summed before at least...
 
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##\lim_{n \to 0} \sin(\frac{\pi n}{4}) \Gamma(x) = \sin(0)\Gamma(x) = 0##...
 
I suspect there is a typo in the original question - it should be Γ(n), not Γ(x).
 
It's actually quite easy. You know that the gamma function satisfies the functional equation \Gamma(x+1) = x \Gamma(x), so then:

\begin{align*} \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \sin (\pi x/4) \Gamma(x) &= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(\pi x/4) \Gamma(x+1)}{x} \\ &= \left( lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(\pi x/4)}{x} \right) \left( \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \Gamma(x+1) \right) \\ &= lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(\pi x/4)}{x}\end{align*}

Where the last equality follows from the fact that \Gamma is continuous and \Gamma(1) = 1. But then by L'hopital's rule:

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(\pi x/4)}{x} = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\pi}{4} \cos (\pi x/4) = \frac{\pi}{4}
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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