Solving Trigonometric Limit: (2x+cos x)/x → ∞

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of the expression (2x + cos x)/x as x approaches infinity, which falls under the subject area of limits in calculus, specifically involving trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to manipulate the expression using the conjugate but expresses confusion about the next steps. Some participants suggest a simpler approach by expanding the expression and considering the limit of individual components. Questions arise regarding the behavior of cos x/x as x approaches infinity, with references to bounded functions and their implications for limits.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively exploring different methods to approach the limit. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of bounded functions and the behavior of limits, though there is no explicit consensus on the final approach yet.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of uncertainty regarding the definition of bounded functions and the behavior of cos x as x approaches infinity, which indicates a need for further clarification on these concepts within the context of the problem.

reedy
Messages
37
Reaction score
0
Im trying to find

lim (2x+cos x)/x as x --> inf.


I've started out by multiplying with the conjugate.

[(2x+cos x)(2x-cos x)] / x(2x-cos x) =

=(4x2-cos2x)/(2x2-x cos x)

But now I'm lost - any hints?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Don't do that. Just expand (2x + cos x)/x = 2 + (cos x/x), then take the limit.
 
But what do I do about cos x/x as x--> inf? That isn't a limit I'm familiar with. My sources say it's 0, but is there any proof?
 
Remember that cos x is a bounded function; then what is the limit of 1/x?
 
im not sure of what a bounded function is, but you made me think:

lim cos x / x = lim cos x * lim 1/x

since lim 1/x is 0, lim cos x / x should be 0 as well. right? great stuff - thanks!
 
You almost got it. Just don't write lim cos(x), when x goes to infinity, because it doesn't exist. Try this instead: a bounded function is one that satisfies |f(x)| < M, for some M and all x in f's domain; cos(x) is an example: |cos(x)| <= 1, for all x in R.

Then there is a theorem that states that the limit of the product of a bounded function times another that goes to 0, must be 0 as well, and this is exactly what you have here.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
33K