MHB Some Properties of the Rational Numbers .... Bloch Exercise 1.5.9 (3)

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The discussion revolves around Exercise 1.5.9 (3) from Ethan D. Bloch's book, focusing on proving that for positive rational numbers r and s, if r^2 < s, then there exists a natural number k such that (r + 1/k)^2 < s. Participants clarify that the proof must avoid using real numbers, as only natural numbers, integers, and rational numbers have been defined so far. A suggested approach involves defining t = s - r^2, confirming that t > 0, and then manipulating inequalities to find a suitable k. The conversation emphasizes the importance of logical steps in the proof and the necessity of reversing the argument to validate the conclusion. Overall, the thread provides insights into constructing rigorous mathematical proofs within the constraints of defined number sets.
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I am reading Ethan D. Bloch's book: The Real Numbers and Real Analysis ...

I am currently focused on Section 1.5: Constructing the Rational Numbers ...

I need help with Exercise 1.5.9 (3) ...Exercise 1.5.9 reads as follows:
View attachment 7023We are at the point in Bloch's book where he has just defined/constructed the rational numbers, having previously defined/constructed the natural numbers and the integers ... so (I imagine) at this point we cannot assume the existence of the real numbers.

Basically Bloch has defined/constructed the rational numbers as a set of equivalence classes on $$\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}^*$$ and then has proved the usual fundamental algebraic properties of the rationals ...Now ... we wish to prove that for $$r, s \in \mathbb{Q}$$ where $$r \gt 0$$ and $$s \gt 0$$ that:

If $$r^2 \lt s$$ then there is some $$k \in \mathbb{N}$$ such that $$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$ ... ...

Solution Strategy

Prove that there exists a $$k \in \mathbb{N}$$ such that $$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$ ... BUT ... without in the proof involving real numbers like $$\sqrt{2}$$ because we have only defined/constructed $$\mathbb{N}, \mathbb{Z}$$, and $$\mathbb{Q}$$ ... so I am assuming that we cannot take the square root of the relation $$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$ and start dealing with a quantity like $$\sqrt{s}$$ ... is this a sensible assumption ...?So ... assume $$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$ ..

then

$$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$

$$\Longrightarrow r^2 + \frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$$

$$\Longrightarrow r^2 + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$$ ... ... since $$\frac{2r}{k} \gt 0$$ ... (but ... how do I justify this step?)

$$\Longrightarrow k^2 \gt \frac{1}{ s - r^2 }$$

But where do we go from here ... seems intuitively that such a $$k \in \mathbb{N}$$ exists ... but how do we prove it ...

(Note that I am assuming that for $$k \in \mathbb{N}$$ that if we show that $$k^2$$ exists, then we know that $$k$$ exists ... is that correct?Hope that someone can clarify the above ...

Help will be much appreciated ...

Peter

===========================================================================================

***NOTE***

In Exercises 1.5.6 to 1.5.8 Bloch gives a series of relations/formulas that may be useful in proving Exercise 1.5.9 (indeed, 1.5.9 (1) and (2) may be useful as well) ... so I am providing Exercises 1.5.6 to 1.5.8 as follows: (for 1.5.9 (1) and (2) please see above)
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/7024
View attachment 7025
 
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Peter said:
Solution Strategy

Prove that there exists a $$k \in \mathbb{N}$$ such that $$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$ ...

.
.
.

$$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$

$$\Longrightarrow r^2 + \frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$$
I would prefer to see this as
$$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$

$${\color{red}\Longleftarrow} r^2 + \frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$$,​
because that is the implication that you want to use!

In order to find $k$ such that $r^2 + \frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$, let $t = s-r^2$. You are told (or at least, you can prove using Exercise 1.5.6) that $t>0$. Also, $\frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s - r^2 = t > 0.$ Use 1.5.6 again to write that as $tk\left(k - \frac{2r}t\right) + 1 >0$. That inequality will be satisfied whenever $k$ is an integer greater than $\frac{2r}t.$

Having found such a value for $k$, you can then reverse each step of the argument to show that $\left(r+\frac1k\right)^2 < s$.
 
Opalg said:
I would prefer to see this as
$$( r + \frac{1}{k} )^2 \lt s$$

$${\color{red}\Longleftarrow} r^2 + \frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$$,​
because that is the implication that you want to use!

In order to find $k$ such that $r^2 + \frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s$, let $t = s-r^2$. You are told (or at least, you can prove using Exercise 1.5.6) that $t>0$. Also, $\frac{2r}{k} + \frac{1}{k^2} \lt s - r^2 = t > 0.$ Use 1.5.6 again to write that as $tk\left(k - \frac{2r}t\right) + 1 >0$. That inequality will be satisfied whenever $k$ is an integer greater than $\frac{2r}t.$

Having found such a value for $k$, you can then reverse each step of the argument to show that $\left(r+\frac1k\right)^2 < s$.
Thanks so much for the help Opalg ...

... in particular, thanks for the key point regarding the logic of the exercise ... I had not thought that out clearly ...

Peter
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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