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Some Questions about Papa Rudin (RCA) Chapter 1

  1. Jan 23, 2012 #1
    Hi dear friends over the Internet,

    I have some questions on Papa Rudin:

    Question 1:

    On page 12 (proof of Theorem 1.9e), why is it that E is measurable?

    Question 2:

    On page the bottom of page 15 (the proof of Theorem 1.17), why are the φn's Borel functions? Also, the proposition states that f is a measurable function from X to [0,∞ ], but doesn't the definition (at least given in Def 1.3 on p8) require [0, ∞] being a topological space? Then what would be the topology of [0, ∞]?

    Thanks, any help is greatly appreciated.
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 23, 2012 #2


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    Gold Member

    Notice that |f| is real measurable and that X\E=|f|-1((0,∞)).

    The topology is generated by the open intervals and intervals of the forms [0,b) and (a,∞]. To prove that φn is a Borel mapping, let U be an open set in [0,∞]. If kδn∈U, then [kδn,(k+1)δn)⊂φn-1(U). If n∈U, then [n,∞]⊂φn-1(U). It follows from this that φn-1(U) is a union of Borel sets and therefore φn is a Borel mapping.
  4. Jan 24, 2012 #3
    Hi jgens, thanks for your answer. You are absolutely amazing!!!! Thanks.
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