Special Case of the Baire Category Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof related to the Baire Category Theorem in the context of a compact Hausdorff space. The original poster presents a claim that the union of a countable collection of closed sets, each having empty interior, also has empty interior. Participants explore the validity of this proof and the implications of various assumptions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to construct a proof by assuming the interior of the union is non-empty and analyzing the implications. Some participants question the validity of the constructed point's inclusion in the interior and whether the proof holds under the given assumptions.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the proof, raising concerns about specific steps and assumptions. There is a recognition of potential flaws in the reasoning, particularly regarding the relationship between the constructed points and the union of the sets. Suggestions for alternative approaches are being considered, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the compactness and Hausdorff properties in the discussion, as well as the challenge of ensuring that certain sets remain within specified bounds. The discussion reflects a careful examination of the definitions and properties involved in the problem.

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1. So the solutions claim a different and better proof of this, but I just wanted to see if mine made sense.

Question - Let X be a compact Hausdorff space; let {An} be a countable collection of closed sets of X. Show that if each set An has empty interior in X, then the union \bigcupAn has empty interior in X.

Homework Equations



If X is compact Hausdorff with no isolated points, for any nonempty open set U of X and any point x of X, there exists a nonempty open set V contained in U such that x\notin\overline{V}.

The Attempt at a Solution



Now that I've seen the solution it seems obvious, but here is what I did.

If we let Int(\bigcupAn)=U and take a point xi of Ai, then there exists an open set Vi \subset Int(\bigcupAn) s.t. x\notin\overline{V}i. We can form this construction because we can choose a point in Int(\bigcupAn) different from x, because if not, then we would either have an empty interior (in the case where x\notin Int(\bigcupAn) ) or we would have a one-point open set (in the case where x\in Int(\bigcupAn) , which would mean that Ai for some i has non-empty interior. Then by the Hausdorff property, there is a W1 and W2 about x and y respectively, that are disjoint. Then W2\bigcapInt(\bigcupAn) is an open set contained in Int(\bigcupAn), not containing x. It follow that the closure of this set, which I'll call V, does not contain x.

Then we can choose \overline{V}1 \supset \overline{V}2 \supset ...

And since X is compact, there exists an x in this infinite intersection. Then, since U is the union of {An}, x must be contained in Ai for some i. But then \overline{V}i \cap Ai is a closed set containing x but not xi. Then the complement of \overline{V}i \cap Ai in Ai is open and non empty in Ai, implying that Ai has non-empty interior, a contradiction.
 
Last edited:
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sammycaps said:
1. So the solutions claim a different and better proof of this, but I just wanted to see if mine made sense.

Question - Let X be a compact Hausdorff space; let {An} be a countable collection of closed sets of X. Show that if each set An has empty interior in X, then the union \bigcupAn has empty interior in X.

Homework Equations



If X is compact Hausdorff with no isolated points, for any nonempty open set U of X and any point x of X, there exists a nonempty open set V contained in U such that x\notin\overline{V}.

The Attempt at a Solution



Now that I've seen the solution it seems obvious, but here is what I did.

If we let Int(\bigcupAn)=U and take a point xi of Ai, then there exists an open set Vi \subset Int(\bigcupAn) s.t. x\notin\overline{V}i. We can form this construction because we can choose a point in Int(\bigcupAn) different from x, because if not, then we would either have an empty interior (in the case where x\notin Int(\bigcupAn) ) or we would have a one-point open set (in the case where x\in Int(\bigcupAn) , which would mean that Ai for some i has non-empty interior. Then by the Hausdorff property, there is a W1 and W2 about x and y respectively, that are disjoint. Then W2\bigcapInt(\bigcupAn) is an open set contained in Int(\bigcupAn), not containing x. It follow that the closure of this set, which I'll call V, does not contain x.

Then we can choose \overline{V}1 \supset \overline{V}2 \supset ...

And since X is compact, there exists an x in this infinite intersection. Then, since U is the union of {An}, x must be contained in Ai for some i. But then \overline{V}i \cap Ai is a closed set containing x but not xi. Then the complement of \overline{V}i \cap Ai in Ai is open and non empty in Ai, implying that Ai has non-empty interior, a contradiction.

It doesn't really seem obvious to me that the x that you constructed actually lies in U. Sure, every V_i lies in U. But you're taking the intersections of the \overline{V_i}. Do those necessarily lie in U?

also, you seem to make LaTeX more difficult than it needs to be. If you want to type \overline{V_i}, then you can do this by

Code:
[itеx]\overline{V_i}[/itex]

This seems a lot easier than using the [NOPARSE]...[/NOPARSE] tags.

Here is a LaTeX FAQ: https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3977517&postcount=3
 
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micromass said:
It doesn't really seem obvious to me that the x that you constructed actually lies in U. Sure, every V_i lies in U. But you're taking the intersections of the \overline{V_i}. Do those necessarily lie in U?

O, I did not see that. Its not obvious to me that x lies in U, and I don't know whether or not its true. Thanks for pointing that out.

Maybe I don't actually need x to be in U, only for x to be in \bigcup{An}. Still though, its not clear to me that is true.

Anyway, maybe this proof just doesn't work.
 
sammycaps said:
O, I did not see that. Its not obvious to me that x lies in U, and I don't know whether or not its true. Thanks for pointing that out.

Maybe I don't actually need x to be in U, only for x to be in \bigcup{An}. Still though, its not clear to me that is true.

Anyway, maybe this proof just doesn't work.

I'm thinking that you might be able to fix it by taking an open set U^\prime such that \overline{U^\prime}\subseteq U that is nonempty. Then you might take care that all the V_i\subseteq U^\prime. That would for the intersection of the \overline{V_i} to be in U.

I didn't really work it out, but you can try some trickery like this.
 

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