Spherically Symmetric charge distribution

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the conditions under which the total charge Q is finite for a spherically symmetric charge distribution defined by the piecewise function ρ(r) = ρ0(r/r0)−n for r > r0 and ρ(r) = ρ0 for r ≤ r0. The key finding is that the total charge is finite if the integral ∫1/r^(n-2) dr converges, which occurs for values of n greater than 2. The total charge can be computed using the formula Q(r>r0) = 4πρ0r0n∫r²/r^n dr.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of electromagnetism principles, specifically charge distributions.
  • Familiarity with integral calculus, particularly convergence of improper integrals.
  • Knowledge of spherical coordinates and volume elements in three dimensions.
  • Basic grasp of piecewise functions and their applications in physics.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the convergence criteria for improper integrals in calculus.
  • Learn about charge distributions and their implications in electrostatics.
  • Explore the application of spherical coordinates in solving physics problems.
  • Review the derivation and implications of Gauss's Law in electrostatics.
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for electromagnetism exams, physics educators, and anyone interested in understanding charge distributions and their mathematical implications.

TheWire247
Messages
15
Reaction score
0
I am currently doing a past paper question for my electromagnetism exam and I can't seem to figure out this problem, it is probably quite simple but I can't see a solution

Homework Statement



Consider a spherically symmetric charge distribution:

ρ(r) = ρ0(r/r0)-n for r>r0

ρ(r) = ρ0 for r≤r0

where ρ0, r0 and n are constants and r = |r|

i) For which values of n is the total charge Q finite? compute the total charge for these values

Homework Equations



As above in the question

The Attempt at a Solution



I have no idea how to start
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The total charge is finite if the charge for r>r0 is finite.

That charge is given by Q(r>r0) = ∫ρ(r) dV = 4π∫ρ(r)r2 dr = 4πρ0r0n∫r2/rn dr

Now you need to know for which values of n does the integral ∫1/rn-2 dr converges. (The integral being taken from r0 to infinity, obviously).
 

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
15K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
6K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
13K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
7K
Replies
28
Views
5K