Squeeze Theorem - Multivarible question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding limits of a multivariable function using the Squeeze Theorem. The original poster presents a function defined for all points except the origin and seeks to prove that the limit approaches 1 as the variables approach (0, 0).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand how to apply the Squeeze Theorem to the given function and questions how to set up the necessary inequalities. Some participants suggest using polar coordinates to simplify the analysis and explore the implications of the limit directly.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, clarifying the function's expression and exploring different approaches. There is a suggestion to use polar coordinates, and the original poster is considering whether this approach negates the need for the Squeeze Theorem.

Contextual Notes

There is some confusion regarding the notation used in the problem statement, which has led to clarifications about the function's form. The original poster is also navigating the requirements of their homework assignment, which emphasizes the use of the Squeeze Theorem.

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Hi,

I'm having a lot of difficulty with finding limits of multivariable functions. A question like this comes up every year in the final exam and it will always ask for use of the squeezing theorem.

Homework Statement



(a) Suppose that
f(x, y) = 1 +(5x2y3)/x2 + y2

for (x, y) =/= (0, 0)

and that f(0, 0) = 0. By applying the Squeezing Rule to |f(x, y) − 1|, or otherwise, prove

that f(x, y) -> 1 as (x, y) -> (0, 0).

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I understand that in order for a limit to exist that no matter what direction we approach (0,0) we must compute the same value. From x-axis and y-axis it seems that the limit is indeed 1. I also get the intuition of squeeze theorem that

lim (x,y) -> (a,b) g(x) <= lim (x,y) -> (a,b) f(x) <= lim (x,y) -> (a,b) h(x)

so lim g(x) = lim h(x) then we have found our lim f(x)

What I'm really confused about is how we set up the squeeze inequality that I see in some textbooks.

Would it be something like this ?

1 =< (5x2y3)/(x2 + y2) <= (I have no idea how you would find an expression on the RHS)
 
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It's almost impossible to tell what you mean. If you don't want to use LaTeX or html tags, at least use "^" to indicate a power. I think your "5x2y3" is supposed to mean 5x^2y^3. But you also need parentheses. Do you mean
1)1 +((5x^2y^3)/x^2) + y^2
2) (1+ 5x^2y^3)/ (x^2+ y^2)
3) 1+ 5x^2y^3/(x^2+ y^2)?

I suspect you mean the third but I cannot be certain

I recommend casting into polar coordinates, then getting you "squeeze" by observing that sine and cosine are always between -1 and 1.
 
Oh, sorry I did mean the third one. I copied and pasted directly from a pdf file and it messed up the formatting without me realising sorry. Ill try the polar coordinates now thx.
 
Okay, So I subbed in x = r cos (alpha) and y = r sin (alpha) and simplified the expression down to

1 + 5r^3(cos(alpha))^2(sin(alpha))^3

My question is, because as the lim r-> 0 then isn't the limit just 1 (which is what I wanted to show) and I wouldn't have to use the squeeze theorem if doing this question in polar coordinates ?
 

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