Stat. Phys. : Renormalization Group and scaling hypothesis

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the renormalization group in statistical physics, specifically how rescaling affects the partition function. The author, Nohman, explores the relationship between the eigenvalues of the Jacobian matrix J_b and the scaling hypothesis, ultimately proving that λ_i = b^{y_i}, where y_i is independent of b. The conclusion is reached that the eigenvalues of J_{b^2} and J_b are equivalent, confirming the constancy of y across rescalings.

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  • Familiarity with the renormalization group theory and its applications.
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Nohman
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Hello everyone,

I am currently studying the renorm. group in Stat. physics, more precisely how a rescaling (of space) leaves the partition function unchanged, at the price of having an infinite space of parameters due to the interaction proliferation at each rescaling.

Let K be our infinite parameters vector and R_{b} the application sending K to R_{b}K after a rescaling of a factor b.

Let K_{0} be a fixed point, i.e. such that K_{0}=R_{b}K_{0}.

Now on the problem itself: let K^{(n)}=K_{0} + δ^{(n)} be our parameters vector at the nth rescaling step, where δ^{(n)} is infinitesimal, this implies that (via a Taylor development)

δ^{(n+1)} = J_{b} δ^{(n)} where J_{b} is the jacobian matrix associated to R_{b} evaluated in K_{0} .


Let λ_{i} be the eigenvalues of J_{b} .

We then have the property that, in the associated orthogonal eigenvectors basis the i-th component of δ^{(n+1)} = λ_{i}
δ^{(n)} i-th component.

I would like to prove that λ_{i}= b^{y_i} with {y_i} independent of b (so that the Renormalization group proves the scaling hypothesis).

It is clear that performing two times a rescaling with factor b or one with factor b^2 is equivalent, and therefore δ^{(n+2)}=J_{b^2}δ^{(n)} = (J_b)^2 δ^{(n)}

However I can not manage to get rid of the fact that the eigenvectors of J_{b^2} are not the same as those of J_b. I tried performing a change of basis, but it did not help, so I hope someone out here will be able and willing to : )

Have a nice day,

Nohman
 
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Ok so the answer came to me, from

(J_{b^2} -J_b^2)\delta^{(n)}=0

we deduce, due to the arbitrariness of δ that both operators are equal and therefore share the same eigenvalues, i.e omitting an index

\lambda_{b^2}=\lambda_b^2 \Rightarrow b^{2y(b^2)}= b^{2y(b)}

which implies that y is indeed a constant function.

Thank you to anyone who has thought about this problem
 

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