Strategy for Testing Series, Infinite Series.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around testing the convergence of an infinite series, specifically the series involving the term \(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{e^{n^2}}\). Participants are exploring various convergence tests, including the root test and the ratio test, to analyze the behavior of the series.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the root test and then the ratio test, leading to an expression that is evaluated using L'Hopital's Rule. Some participants question the handling of terms in the limit process and the assumptions made regarding the convergence tests.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the application of convergence tests, with some providing feedback on the original poster's approach. There is acknowledgment of the need for careful consideration of terms in the limit, but no explicit consensus on the correctness of the original poster's conclusion has been reached.

Contextual Notes

One participant points out a correction regarding the original series expression, indicating a potential misunderstanding in the setup of the problem. This suggests that assumptions about the series may be under review.

mateomy
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I think I did this right...

[tex] \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{e^{n^2}}[/tex]

I tried it with the root test to no avail. So I then tried it with the Ratio Test and I come to this expression...

[tex] \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(n+1)}{e^{2n} e(n)}[/tex]

...which is an indeterminate form (infinity over infinity)

so I take L'Hopital's Rule and come to...

[tex] \frac{1}{2e^{2n} (e)}[/tex]

Which, when taking the limit goes to zero to show absolute convergence.

Can someone confirm this for me?

Thanks!
 
Last edited:
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Dang. Thats supposed to be (in the original Series) e^(n^2)
It also follows that it should be e^(2n) below that.
 
Sure, that works. You are being little casual and throwing out the (n+1)/n part because it approaches 1 and not doing the full l'Hopital. But that's ok, because 1/(e^2n)*e definitely approaches 0.
 
Awesome, thanks!
 

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