Stuck calculating probability of measuring ##S_y## for spin 1 particle

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the probability of measuring the spin component ##S_y## for a spin-1 particle using the eigenspinor method. The participant constructs the operator ##S_y## and derives the eigenspinor ##\chi_{+}^y##. They encounter confusion regarding the calculation of the inner product ##|\langle \chi_{+}^y | \chi \rangle|##, initially obtaining a probability of 1. The resolution involves recognizing the need to conjugate the first matrix and confirming that the state vector ##\chi## is a multiple of the eigenstate, leading to consistent results across different measurements.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics, specifically spin-1 particles
  • Familiarity with raising and lowering operators
  • Knowledge of eigenspinors and their construction
  • Proficiency in calculating inner products of state vectors
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the construction of spin operators for different spin values, such as spin-1/2 and spin-3/2
  • Learn about the implications of measurement in quantum mechanics, particularly in relation to state vectors
  • Explore the concept of basis transformations in quantum mechanics, focusing on the z-basis
  • Investigate the role of complex conjugation in quantum state calculations
USEFUL FOR

Quantum physicists, students studying quantum mechanics, and researchers working on spin systems will benefit from this discussion, particularly those focused on measurement theory and eigenspinor calculations.

earthling75
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Homework Statement
Calculate the probability of finding a particle with spin = 1 in a given state to have an eigenvalue of ##\hbar$ in $S_y## basis.
Relevant Equations
$$S_{\pm}|s,m\rangle = \hbar \sqrt{s(s+1)-m(m\pm 1)}|s,(m\pm 1)\rangle$$
Probability ##=|\langle \chi |\chi_+^y \rangle|^2##
I know how to construct Sy for spin = 1 case from the raising and lowering operators.
I get
$$
S_y=\frac{i\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\
\end{pmatrix}
$$
From what I have seen, the eigenspinor for $\hbar$ is found by solving

$$
\frac{i\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\
\end{pmatrix}
\cdot
\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\ \beta \\ \gamma
\end{pmatrix} =
\hbar \begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\ \beta \\ \gamma
\end{pmatrix}
$$
That leaves me with three equations
$$
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \beta = \alpha$$
$$
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \alpha - \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\gamma = \beta$$
$$
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \beta = \gamma$$

I think I know how to construct the eigenspinor from these values. Is it simply
$$
\chi_{+}^y=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \\ 1 \\ \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix}
$$?

The actual particle I'm trying to measure is in the state
$$
\chi = \frac{1}{2}
\begin{pmatrix} 1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\ -1
\end{pmatrix}
$$
but when I do the calculation, I get
$$
|\langle \chi_{+}^y|\chi\rangle|=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}& 1& -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix}\cdot \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix} =1
$$
What am I doing wrong?
 
Last edited:
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earthling75 said:
but when I do the calculation, I get
$$
| \langle \chi_{+}^y | \chi\rangle| =
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} & 1 & \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \end{pmatrix}
\cdot
\frac{1}{2} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ i \sqrt{2} \\ -1 \end{pmatrix} = 1
$$ What am I doing wrong? If I follow the same procedure for ##-\hbar## or ##0## I get 1.
You forgot to conjugate the first matrix. Nevertheless, you should find a probability of 1. Note that ##\lvert \chi \rangle## is a multiple of the eigenstate.
 
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vela said:
You forgot to conjugate the first matrix. Nevertheless, you should find a probability of 1. Note that ##\lvert \chi \rangle## is a multiple of the eigenstate.
I fixed that typo. So,
$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\\ 1\\ \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix} =\left(-i\right) \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix}
$$
If I next try to measure ##-\hbar## in ##S_z## basis, I get

$$
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix} \cdot \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix}=\frac{1}{2}
$$
Probability ##= \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\frac{1}{4}##.

Do I have to find the new eisgenspinor in ##z## basis or is ##
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix}## okay?
 
earthling75 said:
Do I have to find the new eisgenspinor in ##z## basis or is ##
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix}## okay?
If you want to find the probabilities of the various measurement outcomes for spin in the z-direction, then you can simply read off the state vector column entries. That's the advantage of having the state expressed in the z-basis in the first place.
 

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