Stuck calculating probability of measuring ##S_y## for spin 1 particle

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The discussion centers on calculating the probability of measuring the spin component \( S_y \) for a spin-1 particle. The user constructs the \( S_y \) operator and derives the eigenspinor, but encounters confusion when calculating the probability amplitude with their state vector. It is clarified that the first matrix needs to be conjugated, which leads to a probability of 1, confirming that the state vector is a multiple of the eigenstate. For measuring \( -\hbar \) in the \( S_z \) basis, the user is advised that the current representation is sufficient for determining probabilities. The conversation emphasizes the importance of expressing the state in the appropriate basis for accurate measurement outcomes.
earthling75
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Homework Statement
Calculate the probability of finding a particle with spin = 1 in a given state to have an eigenvalue of ##\hbar$ in $S_y## basis.
Relevant Equations
$$S_{\pm}|s,m\rangle = \hbar \sqrt{s(s+1)-m(m\pm 1)}|s,(m\pm 1)\rangle$$
Probability ##=|\langle \chi |\chi_+^y \rangle|^2##
I know how to construct Sy for spin = 1 case from the raising and lowering operators.
I get
$$
S_y=\frac{i\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\
\end{pmatrix}
$$
From what I have seen, the eigenspinor for $\hbar$ is found by solving

$$
\frac{i\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\
\end{pmatrix}
\cdot
\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\ \beta \\ \gamma
\end{pmatrix} =
\hbar \begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\ \beta \\ \gamma
\end{pmatrix}
$$
That leaves me with three equations
$$
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \beta = \alpha$$
$$
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \alpha - \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\gamma = \beta$$
$$
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \beta = \gamma$$

I think I know how to construct the eigenspinor from these values. Is it simply
$$
\chi_{+}^y=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \\ 1 \\ \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix}
$$?

The actual particle I'm trying to measure is in the state
$$
\chi = \frac{1}{2}
\begin{pmatrix} 1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\ -1
\end{pmatrix}
$$
but when I do the calculation, I get
$$
|\langle \chi_{+}^y|\chi\rangle|=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}& 1& -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix}\cdot \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix} =1
$$
What am I doing wrong?
 
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earthling75 said:
but when I do the calculation, I get
$$
| \langle \chi_{+}^y | \chi\rangle| =
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} & 1 & \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \end{pmatrix}
\cdot
\frac{1}{2} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ i \sqrt{2} \\ -1 \end{pmatrix} = 1
$$ What am I doing wrong? If I follow the same procedure for ##-\hbar## or ##0## I get 1.
You forgot to conjugate the first matrix. Nevertheless, you should find a probability of 1. Note that ##\lvert \chi \rangle## is a multiple of the eigenstate.
 
vela said:
You forgot to conjugate the first matrix. Nevertheless, you should find a probability of 1. Note that ##\lvert \chi \rangle## is a multiple of the eigenstate.
I fixed that typo. So,
$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\\ 1\\ \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix} =\left(-i\right) \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix}
$$
If I next try to measure ##-\hbar## in ##S_z## basis, I get

$$
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix} \cdot \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix}=\frac{1}{2}
$$
Probability ##= \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\frac{1}{4}##.

Do I have to find the new eisgenspinor in ##z## basis or is ##
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix}## okay?
 
earthling75 said:
Do I have to find the new eisgenspinor in ##z## basis or is ##
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix}## okay?
If you want to find the probabilities of the various measurement outcomes for spin in the z-direction, then you can simply read off the state vector column entries. That's the advantage of having the state expressed in the z-basis in the first place.
 
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