Stuck calculating probability of measuring ##S_y## for spin 1 particle

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of measuring the spin component \( S_y \) for a spin-1 particle. Participants are exploring the construction of the \( S_y \) operator using raising and lowering operators and the implications of the eigenspinors derived from it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the construction of the \( S_y \) operator and the corresponding eigenspinors. There are attempts to calculate the inner product between the state vector and the eigenspinor, leading to questions about the correctness of the calculations and the interpretation of results. Some participants also question the necessity of finding eigenspinors in different bases for probability calculations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback on calculations and clarifying concepts related to the measurement probabilities. There is a recognition that the state vector can be expressed in different bases, which influences the interpretation of measurement outcomes.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of quantum mechanics principles, specifically regarding measurement probabilities and the representation of states in different bases. There is an emphasis on ensuring proper mathematical procedures, such as conjugation of matrices, in calculations.

earthling75
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
Calculate the probability of finding a particle with spin = 1 in a given state to have an eigenvalue of ##\hbar$ in $S_y## basis.
Relevant Equations
$$S_{\pm}|s,m\rangle = \hbar \sqrt{s(s+1)-m(m\pm 1)}|s,(m\pm 1)\rangle$$
Probability ##=|\langle \chi |\chi_+^y \rangle|^2##
I know how to construct Sy for spin = 1 case from the raising and lowering operators.
I get
$$
S_y=\frac{i\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\
\end{pmatrix}
$$
From what I have seen, the eigenspinor for $\hbar$ is found by solving

$$
\frac{i\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\
\end{pmatrix}
\cdot
\begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\ \beta \\ \gamma
\end{pmatrix} =
\hbar \begin{pmatrix}
\alpha \\ \beta \\ \gamma
\end{pmatrix}
$$
That leaves me with three equations
$$
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \beta = \alpha$$
$$
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \alpha - \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\gamma = \beta$$
$$
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \beta = \gamma$$

I think I know how to construct the eigenspinor from these values. Is it simply
$$
\chi_{+}^y=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \\ 1 \\ \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix}
$$?

The actual particle I'm trying to measure is in the state
$$
\chi = \frac{1}{2}
\begin{pmatrix} 1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\ -1
\end{pmatrix}
$$
but when I do the calculation, I get
$$
|\langle \chi_{+}^y|\chi\rangle|=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}& 1& -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix}\cdot \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix} =1
$$
What am I doing wrong?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
earthling75 said:
but when I do the calculation, I get
$$
| \langle \chi_{+}^y | \chi\rangle| =
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \begin{pmatrix} -\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} & 1 & \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}} \end{pmatrix}
\cdot
\frac{1}{2} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ i \sqrt{2} \\ -1 \end{pmatrix} = 1
$$ What am I doing wrong? If I follow the same procedure for ##-\hbar## or ##0## I get 1.
You forgot to conjugate the first matrix. Nevertheless, you should find a probability of 1. Note that ##\lvert \chi \rangle## is a multiple of the eigenstate.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: PeroK
vela said:
You forgot to conjugate the first matrix. Nevertheless, you should find a probability of 1. Note that ##\lvert \chi \rangle## is a multiple of the eigenstate.
I fixed that typo. So,
$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix}
-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}\\ 1\\ \frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}
\end{pmatrix} =\left(-i\right) \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix}
$$
If I next try to measure ##-\hbar## in ##S_z## basis, I get

$$
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix} \cdot \frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ i\sqrt{2}\\-1
\end{pmatrix}=\frac{1}{2}
$$
Probability ##= \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\frac{1}{4}##.

Do I have to find the new eisgenspinor in ##z## basis or is ##
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix}## okay?
 
earthling75 said:
Do I have to find the new eisgenspinor in ##z## basis or is ##
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & -1 \\
\end{pmatrix}## okay?
If you want to find the probabilities of the various measurement outcomes for spin in the z-direction, then you can simply read off the state vector column entries. That's the advantage of having the state expressed in the z-basis in the first place.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
4K