arshavin Messages 21 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Apr 29, 2011 #1 If G is a group of order n, and n is divisible by k. Then must G have a subgroup of order k? proof or counterexamples?
If G is a group of order n, and n is divisible by k. Then must G have a subgroup of order k? proof or counterexamples?
Zorba Messages 76 Reaction score 0 Apr 29, 2011 #2 No - one reason to see immediately why, is because if it was true, then Lagrange's theorem should be a two way implication. Simplest example via wikipedia is [tex]\mathbb{A}_4[/tex] with has order 12 and no subgroup of order 6. Last edited: Apr 29, 2011
No - one reason to see immediately why, is because if it was true, then Lagrange's theorem should be a two way implication. Simplest example via wikipedia is [tex]\mathbb{A}_4[/tex] with has order 12 and no subgroup of order 6.