Subspace of Polynomials: \vec{}p(t)=a+t^2, where a is real

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining whether all polynomials of the form \(\vec{p}(t) = a + t^2\), where \(a\) is a real number, constitute a subspace of \(\mathbb{R}^n\). Participants are exploring the properties of these polynomials in relation to the definition of a vector space.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the inclusion of the zero vector in the set of polynomials and whether setting \(a = 0\) is sufficient to satisfy the conditions of a subspace. There is also discussion about the implications of the coefficient of \(t^2\) and its effect on scalar multiplication.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants raising questions about the definitions involved and the implications of the polynomial form. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of the zero vector and the characteristics of the polynomial space, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

There is confusion regarding the classification of the polynomials as vectors in \(\mathbb{R}^n\) versus their actual space, which is suggested to be the set of all polynomials. Participants are also grappling with the definitions of vector addition and scalar multiplication in this context.

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Homework Statement


Determine if all polynomials of the form \vec{}p(t)=a+t^2, where a is in real, are a subspace of \Re_{}n.

The Attempt at a Solution


the correct answer says that p(t) is not a subspace since the zero vector is not in the set.

im trying to work this out and got P(0)=a+0=a
is this correct? if so, why couldn't I just assume that a=0 and call that the zero vector? I'm a bit confused here.
 
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Remember, the polynomials themselves are the vectors: you shouldn't have to evaluate them at points. The zero vector in this case would be 0 or 0 + 0t + 0t2. So yes, you can set a=0, but what is the coefficient of t2?
 
Oh so since the coefficient of t2 is 1, t2 will never be multiplied by the scalar 0, and thus the entire vector never equals 0?
What confuses me is that why can't we assume both a=0 and t=0? or alternatively, why can't we multiply both sides of P(t)=a + t2 by the zero vector?
 
Last edited:
renob said:

Homework Statement


Determine if all polynomials of the form \vec{}p(t)=a+t^2, where a is in real, are a subspace of \Re_{}n.

Are you sure the problem is asking for a subspace of \mathbb{R}^n? Because the polynomials in question are not vectors in \mathbb{R}^n, but lie in \mathcal{F} = {the set of all polynomials \vec{p} : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}}.


renob said:
im trying to work this out and got P(0)=a+0=a
is this correct? if so, why couldn't I just assume that a=0 and call that the zero vector? I'm a bit confused here.

It may help to remind yourself of the definition of the zero vector.
 
I know it's an old thread but can someone clear this up? How is the zero vector not in the set? If t=0 and a=0, you get the zero vector. I can see that polynomials of the form a+b^2 is not closed under scalar multiplication or vector addition but I don't see the zero vector argument.
 

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