Sudden Perturbation Approximation Question

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the sudden perturbation approximation in beta decay, specifically the transition from H3 to He3+. The probability of an electron initially in the 1s state of H3 transitioning to the |n=16,l=3,m=0> state of He3+ is determined to be zero. This result arises from the orthonormality of spherical harmonics, where the inner product ||^2 yields zero due to the differing angular momentum quantum numbers. The interpretation indicates that a particle in an s state cannot possess angular momentum, confirming the zero probability of the transition.

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jsc314159
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Homework Statement


In a beta decay H3 -> He3+, use the sudden perturbation approximation to determine the probability of that an electron initially in the 1s state of H3 will end up in the |n=16,l=3,m=0> state of He3+


Homework Equations


|<n'l'm'|nlm>|^2


The Attempt at a Solution



I actually know the answer to this but I am not clear as to why and I am wondering if there is an easier way to determine the solution.

The answer comes out to be 0. When integrating the wavefunctions |n'l'm'> and |nlm> in spherical coordinates to calculate the inner product (i.e. the probability amplitude), the integral over [tex]d\theta[/tex] returns 0. Is there an easier way to see this other than going through the calculations?

How is this result interpreted?

Thanks,

jsc
 
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jsc314159 said:

Homework Statement


In a beta decay H3 -> He3+, use the sudden perturbation approximation to determine the probability of that an electron initially in the 1s state of H3 will end up in the |n=16,l=3,m=0> state of He3+


Homework Equations


|<n'l'm'|nlm>|^2


The Attempt at a Solution



I actually know the answer to this but I am not clear as to why and I am wondering if there is an easier way to determine the solution.

The answer comes out to be 0. When integrating the wavefunctions |n'l'm'> and |nlm> in spherical coordinates to calculate the inner product (i.e. the probability amplitude), the integral over [tex]d\theta[/tex] returns 0. Is there an easier way to see this other than going through the calculations?

How is this result interpreted?

Thanks,

jsc

The spherical harmonics are orthonormal so <l' m' | l m> is zero unless l=l' and m= m'. Clearly here the result is zero since |3,0> is orthogonal to |0,0>

Physically, it simply says that a particle in an s state has no angular momentum so the probability of it being observed with l=3 is zero. The sudden approximation simply assumes that the transition was so quick that the orbital angular momentum of the electron remained unchanged.
 
Last edited:
Thanks nrged.

That makes it clear.
 

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