Sufficient Proof: $4 \nmid n^2 - 2$ for $r=0$

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that \(4 \nmid n^2 - 2\) for \(r = 0\) using the quotient remainder theorem. It establishes that if \(n = 4q\), then \(n^2 - 2\) simplifies to \(4(4q^2) + 2\), which is not divisible by 4. The conclusion drawn is definitive: for the case \(r = 0\), \(4 \nmid n^2 - 2\) holds true. Additionally, it is noted that all perfect squares are either 0 or 1 modulo 4, leading to \(n^2 - 2\) being 2 or 3 modulo 4.

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tmt1
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I would like to prove that this is incorrect:

$\exists x \in \Bbb{Z}$ such that $ 4 | n^2 - 2$

I can use the quotient remainder theorem,

$n = dq + r$ where $ 0 <= r < d $ and $ d = 4$

For the case $ r = 0$ is this sufficient proof?

$n = 4q $ and $4 | n^2 - 2$ thus $4 | 16q^2 - 2$

then $4 | 4(4q^2) + 2$

which can't be true, $\therefore $ for the case $ r = 0$, $4 \nmid n^2 - 2$

Is this sufficient for the case $r = 0$? (I can figure out the rest of the cases from here)
 
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There's no need to use the "quotient remainder theorem" (unless you've been directed to do so).

It's easily proved that all perfect squares are either 0 or 1 mod 4, thus n2 - 2 is 2 or 3 mod 4.
 

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