In another post it has been demonstrated that...
$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \pi\ \ln 2$ (1)
Now with simple steps You can find that...
$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx + \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = 2\ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx - 2 \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1+x^{2}}\ dx $ (2)
... so that is...
$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ \ln 2 + \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1+x^{2}}\ dx $ (3)
Some years ago I 'discovered' that is...
$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} x^{n}\ \ln x\ dx = -\frac{1}{(n+1)^{2}}$ (4)
... so that is...
$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln x}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = - \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{(2n+1)^{2}} = - G$ (5)
... and finally...
$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1+x^{2})}{1+x^{2}}\ dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ \ln 2 -G$ (6)
Now find the series expansion of the definite integral in (6) is perfectly possible... but in my opinion is more elegant the (6) without any more 'processing'...
Kind regards
$\chi$ $\sigma$