Taylor Series Expansion Confusion

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The discussion revolves around the confusion regarding the differentiation process in deriving the Boltzmann distribution using the Taylor series expansion. Participants clarify that the differentiation is indeed with respect to energy (E), and the Maclaurin series is not suitable for this context as the expansion is centered around E, not zero. The correct approach is to apply the general Taylor series, where the function and its derivative are evaluated at E. There is a consensus that the relationship between changes in energy and epsilon needs careful handling, particularly regarding the assumption that dE/d(epsilon) equals -1 only under specific conditions. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly interpreting the variables and their relationships in thermodynamic contexts.
laser1
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Relevant Equations
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Screenshot_1.png

For context, this is when deriving the Boltzmann distribution by using a canonical ensemble (thermodynamics).

omega is a function to represent number of microstates. According to wikipedia...

Screenshot_2.png

is the first order expansion around 0 (Maclaurin series).

My confusion: What are even differentiating with respect to? It seems like we are differentiating with respect to E, but then the epsilon looks like the "x" in the Maclaurin formula. I have more questions, but I'll leave it at this to avoid confusion for now. Thanks!
 
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Let's analyze it from behind. The Taylor series of a function ##f(x)## at a point ##a## is given by
$$
T(f,x,a)=\sum_{n\ge 0} \dfrac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n=f(a)+f'(a)(x-a)+O((x-a)^2)
$$
For ##f(a)## we have ##f(a)=\ln \Omega(E),## i.e. ##a=E.## Then
$$
f'(a)(x-a)=f'(E)(x-E)=\dfrac{d\ln \Omega(E)}{dx}(x-E)
$$
which means the variable is ##x=-\varepsilon + E## and the second term of the series becomes
$$
f'(E)\cdot((-\varepsilon+E)-E)=\dfrac{d\ln \Omega(E)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}(-\varepsilon+E-E)=-\dfrac{d\ln \Omega(E)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}\varepsilon
$$
We have ##d(E-\varepsilon)=dE - d\varepsilon## and with ##\varepsilon## being a constant we have ##d\varepsilon = 0.##
Proof:
\begin{align*}
\dfrac{df(E)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}&=\dfrac{df((E-\varepsilon)+\varepsilon)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}=\dfrac{df(y+\varepsilon)}{dy}\\[6pt]
&=\dfrac{df(y+\varepsilon)}{d(y+\varepsilon)}\cdot \underbrace{\dfrac{d(y+\varepsilon)}{dy}}_{=1}\\[6pt]
&=\dfrac{df(E)}{dE}
\end{align*}
In total we get
$$
\ln \Omega (E-\varepsilon)=\ln \Omega(E)- \dfrac{d\ln \Omega(E)}{dE}\varepsilon + O(\varepsilon^2)
$$

laser1 said:
I have more questions, ...
Which?
 
Last edited:
laser1 said:
According to wikipedia...

View attachment 351220
is the first order expansion around 0 (Maclaurin series).

It looks like they are really expanding around ##E##, not around 0. The function and derivative are evaluated at ##E##. The Maclaurin series is too specialized (centered at ##x_0=0##) to give a good match to your equation. You should compare it to the more general Taylor series. ##f(a)+\frac {f'(a)}{1!}(x-a)+...##. Then ##E=a##, ##E-\epsilon=x##, and ##-\epsilon=x-a##.
laser1 said:
My confusion: What are even differentiating with respect to? It seems like we are differentiating with respect to E,
That is correct.
 
@fresh_42 Thank you, that makes sense. I also tried differentiating it with respect to epsilon around 0 and got this, but I am stuck at this step:
WhatsApp Image 2024-09-18 at 08.21.10.jpeg
 
laser1 said:
@fresh_42 Thank you, that makes sense. I also tried differentiating it with respect to epsilon around 0 and got this, but I am stuck at this step:

Apply the chain rule.
 
pasmith said:
Apply the chain rule.
WhatsApp Image 2024-09-21 at 21.30.38.jpeg


I did it a few days ago and was happy, but upon closer examination: I suspect dE/d(epsilon) = -1 only if the total energy of the ensemble is a constant.

Any idea where I have gone wrong with my second method?
 
laser1 said:
View attachment 351397

I did it a few days ago and was happy, but upon closer examination: I suspect dE/d(epsilon) = -1 only if the total energy of the ensemble is a constant.

Any idea where I have gone wrong with my second method?
I don't think that you made a mistake.
\begin{align*}
\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(E-\varepsilon)}{d\varepsilon}\right|_{\varepsilon=0}&=\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(E-\varepsilon)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}\right|_{E-\varepsilon=E}\cdot \left.\dfrac{d(E-\varepsilon)}{d\varepsilon}\right|_{\varepsilon=0}\\
&=\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(E-\varepsilon)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}\right|_{E-\varepsilon=E}\cdot\left\{\underbrace{\left.\dfrac{dE}{d\varepsilon}\right|_{\varepsilon=0}}_{=0}+\underbrace{\left.\dfrac{d(-\varepsilon)}{d\varepsilon}\right|_{\varepsilon=0}}_{=-1}\right\}\\
&=-\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(E-\varepsilon)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}\right|_{E-\varepsilon=E}
\end{align*}
The trick is now that it doesn't matter how you call your variables. We simply have
$$
-\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(E-\varepsilon)}{d(E-\varepsilon)}\right|_{E-\varepsilon=E}=-\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(x)}{dx}\right|_{x=E}=-\left.\dfrac{d\Omega(E)}{dE}\right|_{E}=-\dfrac{d\Omega(E)}{dE}
$$