Terminal velocity of loop falling through magnetic field

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The discussion focuses on calculating the terminal velocity of a loop falling through a magnetic field. The initial approach equates gravitational force to magnetic force, leading to the equation v_t = mg/B. However, it is pointed out that this method overlooks energy considerations, specifically the power loss due to resistance in the loop as velocity increases. The correct approach requires balancing the power loss from the induced current with the mechanical power supplied by gravity. Ultimately, the dimensions of the square loop do not affect the final outcome, emphasizing the importance of energy dynamics in the analysis.
Rawl
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Homework Statement



https://physicsforums-bernhardtmediall.netdna-ssl.com/data/attachments/72/72755-bc8e4b32405460abcfa2d8e4880f7037.jpg

I'm trying to figure out the terminal velocity of the loop as it falls through the magnetic field (figure 7.20).

3. The Attempt at a Solution


The terminal velocity will happen when

\vec{F} = 0

i.e.

mg = \vec{f}_{mag}
But we know:

\oint \vec{f}_{mag} . d\vec{l} = vBl

So

\vec{f}_{mag} = vB

v_t = \frac{mg}{B}

Why is this wrong?
 

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You have to regard the energy/power in the system. The square loop has some dimensions which have influence in the resistance, R, of the loop. So as the velocity of the loop increases, the voltage and thus the current will increase, leading to a power loss = I2 * R.

This power loss must match the mechanical power supplied = m*g*v.

See the note: The dimensions of the square will cancel out.
It think it's right.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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