JanClaesen said:
I'm sorry for reviving this old thread. If I remember correctly the answer to this question is that God's omnipotence isn't to be seen in 'worldy' terms. His power isn't what we, 'mere humans' perceive as power.
Definition actually seems a straightforward issue here. We don't need to complicate things by speculating about the further qualities or purposes of some actual god.
Potency is defined as - possessing inner or physical strength, having great control or authority.
Omni means all, or in the limit.
So omnipotent clearly means strong and in control of things without restriction, without constraint.
We are taking a word with a standard worldly meaning and extrapolating it to an unworldly extreme.
As is always the case in this metaphysical game, a dichotomy emerges. If you find you can head in a direction, then that means you are also creating the direction you are managing to leave behind.
In this example, the idea of control over events is dichotomous to the complementary idea of resistance. And naturally if we infinitise both - posit two extremes, omni-control and omni-resistance in interaction - then we must produce a paradox.
This should be no surprise. The two ideas arise out of each other as opposite directions in the first place and so you can never go so far in one direction as to have actually left the other completely behind. Therefore "omni" - the actual limit - is the place that cannot be reached.
So that in turn means in reality (as opposed to word play), a logical paradox cannot arise. You can never get the irresistable force or the unmoveable object as that would break apart what is actually the one thing. A move towards the idea of force that depends on a departure from the matched idea of resistance.
It is just like Newton realized he needed a third law to complete his mechanics - every action demands its precisely complementary reaction. You can't create the figure without also creating the ground, or event without the context. And this dichotomous connection has to remain intact for statements about reality to be meaningful - for the statement that relies on dichotomisation to be actually anchored at both of its ends to something.
Sometimes it is incredible that after 2500 years of philosophy and logic, people don't get these simple ideas. Or do they just have too much fun wallowing about in the confusion of Zeno-style logic twisters?