haushofer
Science Advisor
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Just another example: within the Newtonian limit of General Relativity, one has gauge-fixed the coordinate system in such a way to obtain Newton's second law with the gravitational force in the following form:
[tex] \ddot{x}^i + \Gamma^i_{00} = 0 \ \ \ \ \ (1)[/tex]
With the group of Galilei transformations, this equation transforms as a tensor (or: vector equation). Physically, this means no Galilei transformation will introduce a fictitious force. But if you e.g. apply a time-dependent rotation,
[tex] x^{'i} = R^i{}_j (t)x^j \ \ \ with \ \ \ R^i{}_j (t)\ \ \in SO(3) \ \ \forall t[/tex]
then eqn.(1) does not transform as a tensor anymore, but inhomogenously. The inhomogeneous terms are the fictitious forces. I don't see the problem to speak about eqn.(1) this way, and why it would be so bad to call eqn.(1) a tensor equation under the group of Galilei transformations.
[tex] \ddot{x}^i + \Gamma^i_{00} = 0 \ \ \ \ \ (1)[/tex]
With the group of Galilei transformations, this equation transforms as a tensor (or: vector equation). Physically, this means no Galilei transformation will introduce a fictitious force. But if you e.g. apply a time-dependent rotation,
[tex] x^{'i} = R^i{}_j (t)x^j \ \ \ with \ \ \ R^i{}_j (t)\ \ \in SO(3) \ \ \forall t[/tex]
then eqn.(1) does not transform as a tensor anymore, but inhomogenously. The inhomogeneous terms are the fictitious forces. I don't see the problem to speak about eqn.(1) this way, and why it would be so bad to call eqn.(1) a tensor equation under the group of Galilei transformations.