The Gibbs-Duhem equation - checking some work

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The discussion focuses on the application of the Gibbs-Duhem equation to a two-component system, specifically to derive the relationship involving chemical potentials and molar fractions. The initial approach correctly identifies the need to express the equation in terms of molar fractions and integrate under constant temperature and pressure conditions. However, confusion arises regarding the treatment of partial versus total derivatives, leading to an incorrect integration step. The simpler method proposed by another participant emphasizes the validity of using the Gibbs-Duhem relation directly without unnecessary complexity. Clarification is sought on the mathematical validity of the first method and the errors in the second approach, particularly regarding the integration of partial derivatives.
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Homework Statement



For a two-component system use the Gibbs-Duhem relation to show that

x \left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P} + (1-x)\left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P} = 0

where \mu_a and \mu_b are chemical potentials and x=\frac{n_a}{n_b+n_a}

Homework Equations



The Gibbs-Duhem equation is as follows: -SdT+VdP- \sum_{i} n_i d\mu_i=0

The Attempt at a Solution



Looking at this I see that the sum of chemical potentials is equal to -SdT+VdP (otherwise it wouldn't be zero). I also note that the x is the molar fraction of the two substances, which is why the second term in the equation we are trying to show equals zero has a 1-x in it. (The two molar fractions have to add up to 1).

That would say to me that one way to approach this is:

-SdT+VdP=n_a d\mu_a+n_b d\mu_b

and since the capital S and V are the total S and V (not per mole) and na and nb are the moles of the two substances, if I want the per mole amounts I just need to convert those to molar fractions, x=\frac{n_a}{n_b+n_a} so I would get

-sdT+vdP=\frac{n_a}{n_b+n_a}d\mu_a + (1 - \frac{n_a}{n_b+n_a})d\mu_b

-sdT+vdP=xd\mu_a + (1 - x)d\mu_b

Now, I can intuit that dT and dP ar both zero, because the original problem says T and P are kept constant. Integrating the above I should end up with

-sT+vP=x \mu_a + (1 - x)\mu_b

and taking a partial derivative of μa w/r/t x:

x \left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P}+ \mu_a - \mu_b = 0

do the same with μb w/r/t x:

\mu_a + (1-x) \left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P}- \mu_b = 0

and since both equal zero they are equal to each other


x \left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P}+ \mu_a - \mu_b = \mu_a + (1-x) \left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P}- \mu_b

and moving everything around

x \left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P} = (1-x) \left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P}

x \left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P} - (1-x) \left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P} = 0

But somehow I got a sign switch and I am not quite sure where. (I think I missed something dumb here). But more than that, the hint for the problem says to put μ in terms of P, T, and x and take the partial derivatives with respect to P etc. That seemed a much more complex way of going about it, and I also wondered if I was missing something about how they want you to do the problem. If I try that, what ends up happening is I try integrating to get μ and then re-deriving like this:

x \left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P} + (1-x)\left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial x}\right)_{T,P}= -Sdt + VdP (this from the procedure above)

and then I just straight up integrate both sides

\frac{x^2}{2} \mu_a + (x-\frac{x^2}{2}) \mu_b= -ST + VP

and taking the partial derivatives \frac{x^2}{2}\left(\frac{\partial \mu_a}{\partial P}\right)_{T,x} = V_a, and (x-\frac{x^2}{2})\left(\frac{\partial \mu_b}{\partial P}\right)_{T,x} = V_b

But from there I feel like I am losing the plot, and I suspect I am approaching the math wrong, though I also suspect that if I try the second approach I have to get the partial derivatives of μ with respect to T as well, leaving P constant.

Anyhow, what I am interested in is a) is the first method I tried valid and b) how I messed up the second. (I will make a bet that I can't treat partial derivatives the way I did in the integration I tried).

Any assistance is welcome, and thanks.
 
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It's much simpler than this. It looks like things got away from you. Starting with:

-SdT+VdP=n_a d\mu_a+n_b d\mu_b

At constant temperature and pressure, this becomes:

x_a d\mu_a+x_b d\mu_b=0

Let x = xa and (1-x) = xb. Now since there are only two components, at constant temperature and pressure, μaa(x) and μbb(x). So dμa=(dμa/dx)dx and dμb=(dμb/dx)dx

Chet
 
Yours is a lot simpler, but I was just suspecting that the text was looking for something else, is all. But hey, simple is good. But I am curious if the first method I used was OK. (I know it got away from me in the second part, which is why I left off that method -- i am not sure why the text proposed doing it that way).
 
Emspak said:
Yours is a lot simpler, but I was just suspecting that the text was looking for something else, is all. But hey, simple is good. But I am curious if the first method I used was OK. (I know it got away from me in the second part, which is why I left off that method -- i am not sure why the text proposed doing it that way).

The following looks mathematically incorrect to me:
Now, I can intuit that dT and dP are both zero, because the original problem says T and P are kept constant. Integrating the above I should end up with

-sT+vP=x \mu_a + (1 - x)\mu_b
 
Good to know, but is there something specific that is wrong? That is, I know partial derivatives were on one side and total derivatives on the other, so that can't just be integrated as I did it? Is that the case?
 
Emspak said:
Good to know, but is there something specific that is wrong? That is, I know partial derivatives were on one side and total derivatives on the other, so that can't just be integrated as I did it? Is that the case?
If dT and dP are zero, then: -sdT+vdP=0

Mathematically, the left side doesn't integrate to -sT+vP

Chet
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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