LagrangeEuler
- 711
- 22
Lets consider T(\vec{p})=\frac{\vec{p}^2}{2m}=\frac{\vec{p}\cdot \vec{p}}{2m}. Then \frac{dT}{dt}=\vec{v}\cdot \vec{F}.
And if we consider
T=\frac{p^2}{2m} than \frac{dT}{dt}=\frac{1}{2m}2p\frac{dp}{dt}
Could I see from that somehow that this is \vec{v}\cdot \vec{F}?
And if we consider
T=\frac{p^2}{2m} than \frac{dT}{dt}=\frac{1}{2m}2p\frac{dp}{dt}
Could I see from that somehow that this is \vec{v}\cdot \vec{F}?