Extending Newton's laws -- Is the concept of force still defined?

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strangerep
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Let me try to pose post 1 in another form then. Hypotheses once more: two bodies of masses ##m_1 (t)## variable which is acted on by a body of mass ##m_2## (constant) through a force we call it ##\vec{F}_{2,1} (t)##. The effect of the body ##m_2## is to make the other one both move and lose mass in time. Question: can we use the 3 known Newton's laws to calculate their motion (##\vec{x}_{1} (t), \vec{x}_{2} (t)##)? If yes, how? If not, why?
As others have said, this scenario is incompletely specified. Where does the lost mass go? Can you formulate a Lagrangian that covers all entities in the system?

[Btw, I symphathize with your frustration about how your thread keeps being subtly hijacked.]
 

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