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saim_
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Theorem 1.21 Rudin. Obviously wrongly stated, right?
Theorem 1.21 in Rudin states:
For every real [itex]x > 0[/itex], and every integer [itex]n > 0[/itex], there is one and only one real [itex]y[/itex] such that [itex]y^{n} = x[/itex].
The bold part should be "only one positive real", shouldn't it, or am I missing something? The proof also start with with an implicit assumption that [itex]y[/itex] is positive.
Theorem 1.21 in Rudin states:
For every real [itex]x > 0[/itex], and every integer [itex]n > 0[/itex], there is one and only one real [itex]y[/itex] such that [itex]y^{n} = x[/itex].
The bold part should be "only one positive real", shouldn't it, or am I missing something? The proof also start with with an implicit assumption that [itex]y[/itex] is positive.
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