There are no ring homomorphisms from Z5 to Z7

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JaysFan31
I just need confirmation.

I have a problem in my algebra class that says:
Prove that there are no ring homomorphisms from Z5 to Z7.
I have the following definition of ring homomorphism:
Let R and S be rings. A function R to S is a ring homomorphism if the following holds:
f(1R)=1S.
f(r1+r2)=f(r1)+f(r2) for all r1 and r2 in R.
f(r1r2)=f(r1)f(r2) for all r1 and r2 in R.

I've been thinking and wouldn't f(x)=0 work?
This is a problem in a published textbook so it doesn't make sense to me. Could anyone clue me into where there might be a contradiction in the definition?

Thanks in anticipation. Mike.
 
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Because you said it did. You asked: why is the map f(x)=0 for all x not a homomorphism. Ans: because f(1) is not 1, contradicting the definition of ring homomorphism.
 
Well the f(x)=0 wasn't part of the problem. It was just my own thinking. Does this still work? Somehow I'm still not getting where there is a contradiction in the definition.
 
What I'm basically asking is, is there a ring homomorphism from Z5 to Z7. My book says no. Why is this?
 
If f(1)=1, then what is f(1+1), f(1+1+1), etc.? Eventually there will be a problem.
 
JaysFan31 said:
Well the f(x)=0 wasn't part of the problem. It was just my own thinking. Does this still work?


Does what still work?
 
Yeah what's the problem?
The identity requirement seems to hold. I'm really missing something. Could you spell it out for me?
 
So what are the elements 1, 1+1, 1+1+1, ... in Z5? Are any of them the same? If so, do they map to the same element in Z7, as they must?
 
Are you saying that this function is injective and therefore not a ring homomorphism?
Because I don't see how 3 in Z5 not being the same as 3 in Z7 is a reason for it not being a homomorphism.