Third Isomorphism Theorem for Rings .... Bland Theorem 3.3.16

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on Bland's Third Isomorphism Theorem for rings as presented in "The Basics of Abstract Algebra" by Paul E. Bland. The theorem states that the mapping \( f: I_1 \rightarrow (I_1 + I_2) / I_2 \) defined by \( f(x) = x + I_2 \) is a well-defined ring epimorphism with kernel \( I_1 \cap I_2 \). A participant initially questioned the epimorphism property of \( f \) but was corrected by another user, who demonstrated that every element in \( (I_1 + I_2) / I_2 \) can be expressed as \( f(a) \) for some \( a \in I_1 \), confirming that \( f \) is indeed an epimorphism.

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  • Knowledge of cosets and quotient structures in ring theory
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  • Explore the implications of the Third Isomorphism Theorem in abstract algebra
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I am reading "The Basics of Abstract Algebra" by Paul E. Bland ... ...

I am currently focused on Chapter 3: Sets with Two Binary Operations: Rings ... ...

I need help with Bland's proof of the Third Isomorphism Theorem for rings ...

Bland's Third Isomorphism Theorem for rings and its proof read as follows:
Bland - Theorem 3.3.16 ... .png
In the above proof by Bland we read the following:

" ... ... The mapping ##f \ : \ I_1 \rightarrow ( I_1 + I_2 ) / I_2## given by ##f(x) = x + I_2## is a well-defined ring epimorphism with kernel ##I_1 \cap I_2##. ... ... "I cannot see how f can be an epimorphism as it does not seem to be onto ##( I_1 + I_2 ) / I_2## ... ...

My reasoning (which I strongly suspect is faulty) is as follows:... ... The domain of ##f## is ##I_1##, so ##x \in I_1## ...

Now there exists elements ##y \in I_1 + I_2## such that ##y \in I_2 \ \ ( y = 0 + y## where ##0 \in I_1, y \in I_2)##

For such y there is a coset in ##( I_1 + I_2 ) / I_2## of the form ##y + I_2## that is not in the range of ##f## ...

... so ##f## is not an epimorphism ...
It seems certain to me that my reasoning is wrong somewhere ... can someone please point out the error(s) in my analysis above ...

Peter
 

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An arbitrary element of ##(I_1+I_2)/I_2## is ##(a+b)+I_2##, where ##a\in I_1,b\in I_2##.
But ##(a+b)+I_2## is equal to ##a+I_2## because
$$((a+b)+I_2) - (a+I_2) \triangleq ((a+b)-a)+I_2 = b+I_2=I_2=0_{(I_1+I_2)/I_2}$$
where the second last equality follows from the fact that ##b\in I_2##.
Therefore
$$(a+b)+I_2=a+I_2 = f(a)\in f(I_1)$$
so ##f## is epimorphic.
 
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Thanks Andrew ...

Appreciate the help ...

Peter
 

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