This is called the first order approximation or the linear approximation.

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the application of the Taylor series for the first order approximation in the context of expanding the function V(z + dz, t). The key takeaway is that the first term of the Taylor series, V(z, t), is straightforward, while the second term involves the first derivative of V with respect to z, evaluated at z, multiplied by the infinitesimal change dz. The conclusion emphasizes that higher-order terms, such as those involving (dz)^2, are negligible in this approximation, leading to the simplified expression: V(z + dz, t) ≈ V(z, t) + (∂V/∂z)|_(z) * dz.

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  • Understanding of Taylor series expansion
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  • Basic knowledge of functions of multiple variables
  • Concept of infinitesimals in calculus
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  • Learn about higher-order derivatives and their significance
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Students in engineering and mathematics, particularly those studying calculus, physics, or any field that utilizes Taylor series for approximations. This discussion is beneficial for those seeking to deepen their understanding of function expansion techniques.

roeb
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Homework Statement


Expand V(z + dz, t).
I have seen problems like this in both my EnM and semiconductor courses but it's bothering me because I don't understand how the Taylor series is being used in this case...



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Taylor series: f(a) + f'(x-a) + ...

let f = V(z+dz, t)

Here is where I get stuck... I don't really know what to do

I guess the first term: V(z,t) makes sense
but the second term: dV(z,t)/dz delta(z) doesn't make any sense to me at all...

What the heck happens in the second term?
 
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The formula for the taylor series of [itex]f(x,t)[/itex] about the point [itex]x=a[/itex] is actually:

[tex]f(x,t)=f(a,t)+\left( \left \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial x} \right| _{x=a} \right) \frac{(x-a)}{1!}+\left( \left \frac{\partial ^2f(x,t)}{\partial x^2} {\right|}_{x=a} \right) \frac{(x-a)^2}{2!}+\ldots[/tex]

In your case, you would use this for [itex]x=z+dz[/itex] and [itex]a=z[/itex] so [itex]x-a=dz[/itex] and

[tex]\Rightarrow f(z+dz,t)=f(z,t)+\left( \left \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial x} \right| _{x=z} \right) \frac{dz}{1!}+\left( \left \frac{\partial ^2f(x,t)}{\partial x^2} {\right|}_{x=z} \right) \frac{(dz)^2}{2!}+\ldots[/tex]

But(!) [itex]dz[/itex] is an infinitesimal, so all the terms of order [itex](dz)^2[/itex] and higher are VERY small and so they can be neglected:

[tex]\Rightarrow f(z+dz,t) \approx f(z,t)+\left( \left \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial x} \right| _{x=z} \right)dz[/tex]
 

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