This is called the first order approximation or the linear approximation.

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roeb
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Homework Statement


Expand V(z + dz, t).
I have seen problems like this in both my EnM and semiconductor courses but it's bothering me because I don't understand how the Taylor series is being used in this case...



Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Taylor series: f(a) + f'(x-a) + ...

let f = V(z+dz, t)

Here is where I get stuck... I don't really know what to do

I guess the first term: V(z,t) makes sense
but the second term: dV(z,t)/dz delta(z) doesn't make any sense to me at all...

What the heck happens in the second term?
 
on Phys.org
The formula for the taylor series of [itex]f(x,t)[/itex] about the point [itex]x=a[/itex] is actually:

[tex]f(x,t)=f(a,t)+\left( \left \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial x} \right| _{x=a} \right) \frac{(x-a)}{1!}+\left( \left \frac{\partial ^2f(x,t)}{\partial x^2} {\right|}_{x=a} \right) \frac{(x-a)^2}{2!}+\ldots[/tex]

In your case, you would use this for [itex]x=z+dz[/itex] and [itex]a=z[/itex] so [itex]x-a=dz[/itex] and

[tex]\Rightarrow f(z+dz,t)=f(z,t)+\left( \left \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial x} \right| _{x=z} \right) \frac{dz}{1!}+\left( \left \frac{\partial ^2f(x,t)}{\partial x^2} {\right|}_{x=z} \right) \frac{(dz)^2}{2!}+\ldots[/tex]

But(!) [itex]dz[/itex] is an infinitesimal, so all the terms of order [itex](dz)^2[/itex] and higher are VERY small and so they can be neglected:

[tex]\Rightarrow f(z+dz,t) \approx f(z,t)+\left( \left \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial x} \right| _{x=z} \right)dz[/tex]