Time Invariance of f_n for Quasi-Linear PDE Boundary Conditions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on demonstrating the time invariance of the integral function \( f_n(t) = \int_0^1 y^n \, \mathrm{d}x \) for solutions \( y(x, t) \) of the quasi-linear PDE \( \frac{\partial y}{\partial t} + y\frac{\partial y}{\partial x} = 0 \) with boundary conditions \( y(0, t) = y(1, t) = 0 \). Through differentiation under the integral sign and integration by parts, it is established that \( \frac{df_n}{dt} = n^2 F(t) \), where \( F(t) \) is a function of time. Ultimately, the conclusion is reached that \( \frac{df_n}{dt} = 0 \), confirming that \( f_n(t) \) remains constant over time.

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  • Understanding of quasi-linear partial differential equations (PDEs)
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  • Knowledge of differentiation under the integral sign
  • Proficiency in integration by parts
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Mathematicians, physicists, and students studying differential equations, particularly those focusing on quasi-linear PDEs and their applications in boundary value problems.

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Homework Statement


let y(x, t) be a solution to the quasi-linear PDE
\frac{\partial y}{\partial t} + y\frac{\partial y}{\partial x} = 0
with the boundary condition
y(0, t) = y(1, t) = 0
show that
f_n(t) = \int_0^1 y^n\,\mathrm{d}x
is time invariant for all n = 1, 2, 3,...

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


By differentiation under the integral sign i obtain
\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}t}f_n(t) = \int_0^1ny^{n-1}\frac{\partial y}{\partial t}\,\mathrm{d}x \\<br /> = -n\int_0^1y^n\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\,\mathrm{d}x \\<br /> = -n\underbrace{[y^{n+1}]_0^1}_{=0} + n^2\int_0^1y^n\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\,\mathrm{d}x
where the last equality in valid by integration by parts.

My goal was to obtain a differential equation for f_n.
 
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Hi, I don't understand why at the end it is ## n^2\int_{0}^{1}y^n\frac{\partial y}{\partial x} dx## instead of ##n^2\int_{0}^{1}y^n dx=n^2f_{n}##
 
Ssnow said:
Hi, I don't understand why at the end it is ## n^2\int_{0}^{1}y^n\frac{\partial y}{\partial x} dx## instead of ##n^2\int_{0}^{1}y^n dx=n^2f_{n}##
Because,
\int_0^1 y^n\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}x = [y^{n+1}]_0^1 - \int_0^1 ny^{n-1}\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}\,y\,\mathrm{d}x
as
\int fg^\prime = fg - \int f^\prime g
 
ok sorry I lost a term deriving... yes it is no easy to find the form ##f_{n}## for a possible equation. The fact is that ##f_{n}## depends only by the time and also the quantity ##F=\int_{0}^{1}y^{n}(x,t)\frac{\partial y(x,t)}{\partial x}dx ## is a function only of the time, so you equation will be

## \frac{df_{n}}{dt}=n^2F(t)##
 
Hi, but if you can think ##y^n\frac{\partial y}{\partial x}=\frac{1}{n+1}\frac{\partial y^{n+1}}{\partial x}## you have that the integral will be:

##\frac{n^2}{n+1}[y(1,t)^{n+1}-y(0,t)^{n+1}]=0##

so your equation is ##\frac{d f_{n}}{dt}=0##
 

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