Time quantization in classical physics

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of time in classical physics, specifically addressing the notion of time being continuous versus the idea of time being quantized. Participants explore the implications of measuring a particle's state in motion versus at rest and whether this leads to a paradox in classical mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that since a particle can only be measured at rest or in motion, there must be a quantization of time, leading to a paradox in classical mechanics.
  • Another participant argues that this situation is akin to Zeno's Paradox and can be resolved through calculus, implying that the reasoning presented is flawed.
  • A participant questions whether a particle can be both at rest and in motion simultaneously within classical mechanics, seeking a practical understanding rather than a mathematical or philosophical one.
  • Further responses reiterate that the concept of time can be continuous even if specific instances of time (t_0 and t_1) are distinct, suggesting that the original question does not present a paradox.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the interpretation of time in classical physics, with some asserting that there is no paradox and others maintaining that the question remains valid and unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference mathematical concepts and philosophical implications, indicating that the discussion is nuanced and dependent on interpretations of time and measurement in classical physics.

hclatomic
Hello,

It is considered that the time is continuous in classical physics, but it sounds paradoxal to me, let me explain.

Let a particle inside a galilean frame of reference. This particle can only be measured either at rest, either in motion, but never simultaneously at rest and in motion. Therefore calling [itex]t_0[/itex] the last time when the particle can be measured at rest, and [itex]t_1[/itex] the first time when it can be measured in motion, we must have [itex]t_0 \neq t_1[/itex]. It can not exist a time [itex]t[/itex] verifying [itex]t_0 < t <t_1[/itex], because at such a time the particle would be simultaneously at rest and in motion. We are then led to consider that the time must be quantized in classical mechanics, the quantum of time being [itex]\Delta t = t_1 - t_0[/itex].

Of course the situation is different in quantum mechanics, but my point is only concerning the classical mechanics for which it is usually accepted that the time is continuous.

Don't you think there is a paradox here ?
 
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hclatomic said:
Don't you think there is a paradox here ?
No. It's a variant on Zeno's Paradox, and is therefore thoroughly answered by stopping using verbal reasoning and starting using calculus.
 
Ibix said:
No. It's a variant on Zeno's Paradox, and is therefore thoroughly answered by stopping using verbal reasoning and starting using calculus.
As far as I can read I used the calculation in my question. I am talking about physics and you tell me about philosophy, stated 500 BC. I am aware of the differential calculation, I think you refer to this, but there are the mathematics and the philosophy, and there is the physics.

So in practice, not in mathematics nor in philosophy, can a particle be at the same time at rest and in motion, in classical mechanics ?
 
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Your reasoning can be summed as: what is the next real number in increasing order after 2? Good luck finding it. :)
 
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dextercioby said:
Your reasoning can be summed as: what is the next real number in increasing order after 2? Good luck finding it. :)
In mathematics you would be right, but I am talking about classical physics.
So my question stands, not in mathematics nor in philosophy, but in clasical physics : can a particle be at the same time at rest and in motion ?
Did anyone measure such thing ?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
##\Delta{t}=t_1-t_0## can be made arbitrarily small. This implies that ##t## is continuous even though ##t_1## is never equal to ##t_0## and even though (as you point out above) an object cannot be moving and not moving at the same time.

Thus, the answer to your original question is that there is no paradox here. This thread is closed.
 

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