Torque, have answer, need explanation

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The discussion centers on the calculation of torque resulting from a force vector F = (2.0N)i - (3.0N)k acting on a pebble with position vector r = (0.50m)j - (2.0m)k. The calculated torque is (-1.5)i - (4.0)j - (1.0)k Nm for both the origin and the point (2.0m, 0, -3.0m). The key conclusion is that the torque remains the same in this scenario because the position vector to the point (2.0m, 0, -3.0m) is parallel to the force vector, resulting in the position not affecting the torque in this specific case.

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Force F= (2.0N)i - (3.0N) k acts on a pebble with position vector r= (0.50m)j - (2.0m)k relative to the origin. In unit vector notation, what is the resulting torque about a) the origin and b) the point (2.0m, 0, -3.0m)?

Okay, I got the answers and their right. For both (-1.5)i - (4.0)j -(1.0) k Nm. My question is what is the relation here? Why is the torque the same about the origin and a point? Is it because the position doesn't affect the torque, but the force does? What am I missing because I want to know the relationship here or if it's pure coincidence.
 
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gvcalamike said:
Force F= (2.0N)i - (3.0N) k acts on a pebble with position vector r= (0.50m)j - (2.0m)k relative to the origin. In unit vector notation, what is the resulting torque about a) the origin and b) the point (2.0m, 0, -3.0m)?

Okay, I got the answers and their right. For both (-1.5)i - (4.0)j -(1.0) k Nm. My question is what is the relation here? Why is the torque the same about the origin and a point? Is it because the position doesn't affect the torque, but the force does? What am I missing because I want to know the relationship here or if it's pure coincidence.

It happens to work that way because P=[2m,0,-3m] happens to be parallel to the force F=[2N,0,-3N]. So Fx(r-P)=Fxr-FxP and FxP is zero since F and P are parallel. So Fx(r-P)=Fxr. Position generally does affect the torque. But not in this case.
 
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Thank you sir.
 

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