Torsion and the conservation of angular momentum

In summary, the conversation discusses the potential violation of the conservation of angular momentum if our spacetime has torsion. The principle of relativity and the assumption of a torsion-free spacetime in general relativity are also mentioned. There is a mention of the possibility of additional propagating degrees of freedom in theories with torsion and the restrictions on the covariant derivative in general relativity to ensure the Equivalence Principle.
  • #1
micomaco86572
54
0
If our spacetime has torsion, will it violate the conservation of angular momentum?

Thx
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
micomaco86572 said:
If our spacetime has torsion, will it violate the conservation of angular momentum?

Thx

It's difficult to tell what you mean. Are you asking what would happen if empty space had torsion, or if we used a connection that was not torsion free? --or if general relativity properly handles orbital angular momentum?
 
Last edited:
  • #3
I guess you mean the torsion tensor [tex]S^{i}{}_{k l} \equiv \Gamma^{i}{}_{k l} - \Gamma^{i}{}_{l k}[/itex]. According to the principle of Relativity, it must be zero.
 
  • #4
I'm unclear about this, Dickfore. In the derivation I'm familiar with, the torsion tensor must be zero. How does one even begin to set up a connection that is not symmetric on interchange of the lower indices?
 
  • #5
In GR, the spacetime is Riemann manifold, with zero torsion. But it is just a assumption. If there is not some experimental fact conflict with the torsion , we still cannot rule out the spacetime with torsion which is called Riemann Cartan manifold.

People introduce this assumption for what? Just for simplification? (forgive my poor English,:) )
 
  • #6
I agree; I thought the "zero torsion" was just an assumption. So I'd like to here more about this statement:
Dickfore said:
According to the principle of Relativity, it must be zero.
Why would non-zero torsion violate the principle of relativity? Are you saying measurements validating the principle of relativity can, in principle, rule out Einstein-Cartan gravity?
 
  • #7
micomaco86572

By coincidence, I've been searching the internet for Einstein Cartan Gravity and related structures the past week.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

To define the covariant derivative, a connection, [itex]\Gamma[/itex] is needed.

[tex]\nabla_\mu V^\nu = \partial_\mu V^\nu + \Gamma_{\mu \lambda}^{\nu} V^{\lambda}[/tex]

[itex]\nabla_{\mu}[/itex] acts linearly on vectors and [itex]\nabla_\mu V^\nu[/itex] transforms as the product of a vector and dual vector.

[tex]\nabla_{\mu'} V^{\nu'} = \frac{ \partial x^{\mu} } { \partial x^{\mu'} } \frac{ \partial x^{\nu'} }{ \partial x^{\nu} } \nabla_{\mu} V^{\nu}[/tex]

In examining the transformation of [itex]\Gamma[/itex], it is apparent that it is symmetric in its lower indices. I won't post the transformation equation that shows this because it's too much work to get all this Latex correct, though it's apparent that it is unchanged upon interchange of the lower indices.

It is symmetrical in lower indices,

[tex]\Gamma_{\mu \lambda}^{\nu} = \Gamma_{\lambda \mu}^{\nu} \ ,[/tex]

so the difference, S must be zero in all its parts.

[tex]S_{\mu \lambda}^{\nu} = \Gamma_{\mu \lambda}^{\nu} - \Gamma_{\lambda \mu}^{\nu} = 0[/tex]


So how does one obtain a nonzero torsion, S?

If a nonzero torsion is ad hoc--where an antisymmetric connection is simply added onto the symmetric one, how can the covariant derivative be justified if it is only defined upon the symmetric part?
 
Last edited:
  • #8
JustinLevy said:
Why would non-zero torsion violate the principle of relativity? Are you saying measurements validating the principle of relativity can, in principle, rule out Einstein-Cartan gravity?

It seems to violate the Equivalence Principle. An accelerated particle will not begin to spin. If I understand correctly, Einstein Cartan gravity will allow this. The verbage I read was hazzy and no mathematics was given.
 
Last edited:
  • #9
micomaco86572 said:
In GR, the spacetime is Riemann manifold, with zero torsion. But it is just a assumption. If there is not some experimental fact conflict with the torsion , we still cannot rule out the spacetime with torsion which is called Riemann Cartan manifold.

People introduce this assumption for what? Just for simplification? (forgive my poor English,:) )

According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein%E2%80%93Cartan_theory" ,

"general relativity has one known flaw: it cannot describe "spin-orbit coupling", i.e., exchange of intrinsic angular momentum (spin) and orbital angular momentum...".
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #10
In examining the transformation of [itex said:
\Gamma[/itex], it is apparent that it is symmetric in its lower indices. I won't post the transformation equation that shows this because it's too much work to get all this Latex correct, though it's apparent that it is unchanged upon interchange of the lower indices.

I am sorry, Phrak. I cannot prove the symmetry of the lower indices. Can u tell me some details. Thx a lot.
 
  • #11
micomaco86572 said:
I am sorry, Phrak. I cannot prove the symmetry of the lower indices. Can u tell me some details. Thx a lot.

I can direct you to it instead. Go to this website http://xxx.lanl.gov/abs/gr-qc/9712019" The download is 1.51 MB. See equation 3.6.

I'm sorry, I've made a grave error. Thank you for bringing it to my attention.

Equation 3.6 says the connection Coordinate Transformation is symmetric in its lower indices.

Equation 3.6 does Not say the connection is symmetric.

If you absorb equations 3.1 through 3.6, continue on to equation 3.16 that defines the torsion tensor.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #12
micomaco. I found one justification for using a torsion-free connection in Sean Carroll's Text on page 120:

"We could drop the demand that the connection be torsion-free, in which case the torsion tensor could lead to additional propagating degrees of freedom. Without going into details, the basic reason why such theories do not receive much attention is simply because the torsion is itself a tensor; there is nothing to distinguish it from other, “non-gravitational” tensor fields. Thus, we do not really lose any generality by considering theories of torsion-free connections (which lead to GR) plus any number of tensor fields, which we can name what we like."
 
  • #13
micomaco86572, have you found the answer to your question?

I've done some review. There are a number of restrictions to obtain the covariant derivative for General Relativity (and therefore the connection as well). Restricting the Christoffel connection to torsion free is one of many restrictions.

1) Linear operator: [tex] \nabla (S+T) = \nabla S + \nabla T[/tex]

2) Product rule of differentiation: [tex]\nabla (S \otimes T) = (\nabla S) \otimes T + S \otimes (\nabla T)[/tex]

3) Metric compatable (the metric commutes with the covariant derivative): [tex]\nabla_{\lambda} g_{_\mu \nu} = 0[/tex]

4) Torsion free (the connection is symmetric in its lower indices): [tex]\Gamma_{\mu \nu}^{\lambda} = \Gamma_{\nu \mu}^{\lambda}[/tex]

5) Acting on scalars, the covariant derivative reduces to the partial derivative: [tex]\nabla_{\mu} \phi = \partial{_\mu} \phi[/tex]

6) And finally, nabla commutes with contraction: [tex]\nabla_{\mu} T_{\nu}\ ^{\nu} = (\nabla T)_{\mu \nu}\ ^{\nu}[/tex]

I think all of these restrictions are to ensure the Equivalence Principle, including torsion=0, are requirements so that the geodesic, when defined as the parallel transport of a vector in its own direction, is the path of a freely falling body in an accelerating reference frame, and that the orientation of the body is also preserved as experiment indicates.
 
Last edited:

1. What is torsion?

Torsion is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque. It is a type of rotational deformation that occurs when a force is applied to an object, causing it to rotate about its axis.

2. How does torsion affect the conservation of angular momentum?

Torsion does not affect the conservation of angular momentum. According to the law of conservation of angular momentum, the total angular momentum of a system remains constant, even if torsion is present. This means that the total amount of rotational motion in a system will remain the same, regardless of any twisting forces acting on the system.

3. Can torsion be used to change the direction of angular momentum?

Yes, torsion can be used to change the direction of angular momentum. When a torque is applied to an object, it causes the object to rotate, which changes the direction of its angular momentum. However, the total amount of angular momentum in the system will always remain constant.

4. What is the relationship between torque and angular momentum?

Torque and angular momentum are directly related to each other. Torque is the force that causes an object to rotate, and it is directly proportional to the rate of change of angular momentum. This means that the greater the torque applied to an object, the faster its angular momentum will change.

5. How is the conservation of angular momentum applied in real-world situations?

The conservation of angular momentum is applied in various real-world situations, such as in the movement of objects in space, the motion of spinning tops, and the flight of a frisbee. It is also used in engineering and design, such as in the construction of rotating machinery and vehicles with spinning wheels.

Similar threads

  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
13
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
3
Views
802
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
2
Replies
67
Views
4K
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • Introductory Physics Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
803
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
Replies
8
Views
2K
Back
Top